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GRE北美试题19

2006-01-23 00:00

    No.4-3  SECTION 1

    1. Her----should not be confused with miserli- ness; as long as I have known her, she has always been willing to assist those who are in need.

    (A) intemperance  (B) intolerance

    (C) apprehension  (D) diffidence

    (E) frugality

    2. Natural selection tends to eliminate genes that cause inherited diseases, acting most strongly against the most severe diseases; consequently, hereditary diseases that are----would be expected to be very----, but, surprisingly, they are not.

    (A) lethal.. rare (B) untreated.. dangerous

    (C) unusual.. refractory (D)new.. perplexing

    (E) widespread.. acute

    3. Unfortunately, his damaging attacks on the ramifications of the economic policy have been

  ----by his wholehearted acceptance of that

    policy's underlying assumptions.

    (A) supplemented (B) undermined

    (C) wasted   (D) diverted    (E) redeemed

    4. During the opera's most famous aria the tempo chosen by the orchestra's conductor seemed

   ----, without necessary relation to what had

    gone before.

    (A) tedious   (B) melodious (C) capricious

    (D) compelling  (E) cautious

    5. In the machinelike world of classical physics, the human intellect appears----, since the mechanical nature of classical physics does not

  ----creative reasoning, the very ability that

    had made the formulation of classical principles possible.

    (A) anomalous.. allow for

    (B) abstract.. speak to

    (C) anachronistic.. deny

    (D) enduring.. value

    (E) contradictory.. exclude

    6. During the 1960's assessments of the family shifted remarkably, from general endorsement of it as a worthwhile, stable institution to wide- spread----it as an oppressive and bankrupt one whose----was both imminent and welcome.

    (A) flight from.. restitution

    (B) fascination with.. corruption

    (C) rejection of.. vogue

    (D) censure of.. dissolution

    (E) relinquishment of.. ascent

    7. Documenting science's----philosophy would be----, since it is almost axiomatic that many philosophers use scientific concepts as the foundations for their speculations.

    (A) distrust of.. elementary

    (B) influence on.. superfluous

    (C) reliance on.. inappropriate

    (D) dependence on.. difficult

    (E) differences from.. impossible

    8. SCALPEL: SURGEON::

    (A) laser: agronomist

    (B) magnet: ecologist

    (C) syringe: geologist

    (D) telescope: astronomer

    (E) microscope: geometrician

    9. APPLE: FRUIT::

    (A) egg: chicken  (B) rung: chair

    (C) wool: fabric  (D) fuse: dynamite

    (E) wick: candle

    10. ENVELOPE: LETTER::

    (A) scarf: hat   (B) box: bag

    (C) crate: produce (D) neck: head

    (E) blood: heart

    11. PANEGYRIC: EULOGIZE::

    (A) ballad: stigmatize    (B) ode: criticize

    (C) lampoon: satirize    (D) tirade: entertain

    (E) treatise: dispute

    12. OVERDOSE: PRESCRIPTION::

    (A) deprivation: materialism

    (B) indiscretion: convention

    (C) affliction: sympathy

    (D) adventure: expedition

    (E) drug: medicine

    13. FRESCO: WALL::

    (A) fountain: courtyard   (B) parquetry: floor

    (C) thatch: roof  (D) statuary: passage

    (E) gargoyle: gutter

    14. HAMMER: ANVIL::

    (A) knocker: door (B) stick: gong

    (C) hand: drum  (D) pestle: mortar

    (E) gavel: lectern

    15. RELEVANT: CRUCIAL::

    (A) marginal: unique

    (B) perceptible: obvious    (C) apparent: real

    (D) peripheral: central   (E) possible: desirable

    16. PERFUNCTORILY: INSPIRATION::

    (A) insolently: veneration

    (B) ardently: passion

    (C) phlegmatically: composure

    (D) surreptitiously: obsession

    (E) haltingly: reluctance

    Great comic art is never otherwordly, it does not seek to mystify us, and it does not deny ambiguity by branding as evil whatever differs from good. Great comic artists assume that truth may bear all lights, and thus they seek to accentuate contradictions in social action, not gloss over or transcend them by appeals to extrasocial symbols of divine ends, cosmic purpose, or laws of nature. The moment of transcen- dence in great comic art is a social moment, born out of the conviction that we are human, even though we try to be gods. The comic community to which artists address themselves is a community of reasoning, loving, joyful, compassionate beings, who are willing to assume the human risks of acting rationally. With- out invoking gods or demons, great comic art arouses courage in reason, courage which grows out of trust in what human beings can do as humans.

    17. The passage suggests that great comic art can be characterized as optimistic about the ability of humans to

    (A) rid themselves of pride

    (B) transcend the human condition

    (C) differentiate clearly between good and evil

    (D) avoid social conflicts (E) act rationally

    18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author admires great comic artists primarily for their

    (A) ability to understand the frequently subtle differences between good and evil

    (B) ability to reconcile the contradictions in human behavior

    (C) ability to distinguish between  rational and irrational behavior

    (D) insistence on confronting the truth about the human condition

    (E) insistence on condemning human faults and weaknesses

    19. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the organization of the passage?

    (A) A sequence of observations leading to a prediction

    (B) A list of inferences drawn from facts stated at the beginning of the passage

    (C) A series of assertions related to one general subject

    (D) A statement of the major idea, followed by specific examples

    (E) A succession of ideas moving from specific to general

    It has long been known that the rate of oxidative metabolism (the process that uses oxygen to convert food into energy) in any animal has a profound effect on its living patterns. The high metabolic rate of small animals, for example, gives them sustained power and activity per unit of weight, but at the cost of requiring constant consumption of food and water. Very large animals, with their relatively low metabolic rates, can survive well on a sporadic food supply, but can gen- erate little metabolic energy per gram of body weight. If only oxidative metabolic rate is considered, there- fore, one might assume that smaller, more active, animals could prey on larger ones, at least if they attacked in groups. Perhaps they could if it were not for anaerobic glycolysis, the great equalizer.

    Anaerobic glcolysis is a process in which energy is produced, without oxygen, through the breakdown of muscle glycogen into lactic acid and adenosine tri- phosphate (ATP), the energy provider. The amount of energy that can be produced anaerobically is a function of the amount of glycogen present-in all vertebrates about 0.5 percent of their muscles' wet weight. Thus the anaerobic energy reserves of a verte- brate are proportional to the size of the animal. If, for example, some predators had attacked a 100-ton dinosaur, normally torpid, the dinosaur would have been able to generate almost instantaneously, via anaerobic glycolysis, the energy of 3,000 humans at maximum oxidative metabolic energy production. This explains how many large species have managed to compete with their more active neighbors: the compensation for a low oxidative metabolic rate is glycolysis.

    There are limitations, however, to this compensa- tion. The glycogen reserves of any animal are good, at most, for only about two minutes at maximum effort, after which only the normal oxidative metabolic source of energy remains. With the conclusion of a burst of activity, the lactic acid level is high in the body fluids, leaving the large animal vulnerable to attack until the acid is reconverted, via oxidative metabolism, by the liver into glucose, which is then sent (in part) back to the muscles for glycogen resyn- thesis. During this process the enormous energy debt that the animal has run up through anaerobic gly- colysis must be repaid, a debt that is proportionally much greater for the larger vertebrates than for the smaller ones. Whereas the tiny shrew can replace in minutes the glycogen used for maximum effort, for example, the gigantic dinosaur would have required more than three weeks. It might seem that this inter- minably long recovery time in a large vertebrate would prove a grave disadvantage for survival. Fortunately, muscle glycogen is used only when needed and even then only in whatever quantity is necessary. Only in times of panic or during mortal combat would the entire reserves be consumed.

    20. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) refute a misconception about anaerobic glycolysis

    (B) introduce a new hypothesis about anaerobic glycolysis

    (C) describe the limitations of anaerobic glycolysis

    (D) analyze the chemistry of anaerobic glycolysis and its similarity to oxidative metabolism

    (E) explain anaerobic glycolysis and its effects on animal survival

    21. According to the author, glycogen is crucial to the process of anaerobic glycolysis because glycogen

    (A) increases the organism's need for ATP

    (B) reduces the amount of ATP in the tissues

    (C) is an inhibitor of the oxidative metabolic production of ATP

    (D) ensures that the synthesis of ATP will occur speedily

    (E) is the material from which ATP is derived

    22. According to the author, a major limitation of anaerobic glycolysis is that it can

    (A) produce in large animals more lactic acid than the liver can safely reconvert

    (B) necessitate a dangerously long recovery period in large animals

    (C) produce energy more slowly than it can be used by large animals

    (D) consume all of the available glycogen regardless of need

    (E) reduce significantly the rate at which energy is produced by oxidative metabolism

    23. The passage suggests that the total anaerobic energy reserves of a vertebrate are proportional to the vertebrate's size because

    (A) larger vertebrates conserve more energy than smaller vertebrates

    (B) larger vertebrates use less oxygen per unit weight than smaller vertebrates

    (C) the ability of a vertebrate to consume food is a function of its size

    (D) the amount of muscle tissue in a vertebrate is directly related to its size

    (E) the size of a vertebrate is proportional to the quantity of energy it can utilize

    24. The author suggests that, on the basis of energy production, a 100-ton dinosaur would have been markedly vulnerable to which of the following?

    I. Repeated attacks by a single smaller, more active adversary

    II. Sustained attack by numerous smaller, more active adversaries

    III. An attack by an individual adversary of similar size

    (A) II only   (B) I and II only

    (C) I and III only  (D) II and III only

    (E) I, II, and III

    25. It can be inferred from the passage that the time required to replenish muscle glycogen following anaerobic glycolysis is determined by which of the following factors?

    I. Rate of oxidative metabolism

    II. Quantity of lactic acid in the body fluids

    III. Percentage of glucose that is returned to the muscles

    (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only

    (D) I and III only  (E) I, II, and III

    26. The author is most probably addressing which of the following audiences?

    (A) College students in an introductory course on animal physiology

    (B) Historians of science investigating the discovery of anaerobic glycolysis

    (C) Graduate students with specialized training in comparative anatomy

    (D) Zoologists interested in prehistoric animals

    (E) Biochemists doing research on oxidative metabolism

    27. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?

    (A) The disadvantage of a low oxidative metabolic rate in large animals can be offset by their ability to convert substantial amounts of glycogen into energy.

    (B) The most significant problem facing animals that have used anaerobic glycolysis for energy is the resynthesis of its by-product, glucose, into glycogen.

    (C) The benefits to animals of anaerobic glycolysis are offset by the profound costs that must be paid.

    (D) The major factor ensuring that a large animal will triumph over a smaller animal is the large animal's ability to produce energy via anaerobic glycolysis.

    (E) The great differences that exist in metabolic rates between species of small animals and species of large animals can have important effects on the patterns of their activities.

    28. FLUSTERED:

    (A) mute (B) calm    (C) heavy

    (D) ingrained (E) courageous

    29. ENDORSE:

    (A) provoke criticism     (B) receive payment

    (C) submit unwillingly    (D) oppose publicly

    (E) perform quickly

    30. EXPIRE:

    (A) evolve    (B) stabilize    (C) come to life

    (D) grow to fruition (E) bring to light

    31. METAMORPHOSIS:

    (A) relief from strain

    (B) continuation without change

    (C) cyclical motion

    (D) dogmatic persistence

    (E) varied activity

    32. MOROSE:

    (A) overawed (B) agitated (C) cherubic

    (D) decisive  (E) cheerful

    33. INDELIBILITY:

    (A) availability (B) comprehensibility

    (C) decidability (D) erasability

    (E) retractability

    34. SPIRITUAL:

    (A) eclectic    (B) figurative (C) ephemeral

    (D) immoral    (E) corporeal

    35. DISPATCH:

    (A) serenity   (B) leisureliness

    (C) heedlessness  (D) irregularity

    (E) aversion

    36. FERMENT:

    (A) solidity  (B) purity  (C) lucidity

    (D) transparency  (E) tranquillity

    37. FACETIOUS:

    (A) lugubrious     (B) contentious

    (C) ingenuous    (D) prodigious

    (E) audacious

    38. CRAVEN:

    (A) indifferent (B) presumptuous

    (C) valorous     (D) scrupulous    (E) petulant

    NO. 4-3  SECTION 2

    1. The spellings of many Old English words have been----in the living language, although their pronunciations have changed.

    (A) preserved (B) shortened (C) preempted

    (D) revised  (E) improved

    2. The sheer diversity of tropical plants represents a seemingly----source of raw materials, of which only a few have been utilized.

    (A) exploited  (B) quantifiable

    (C) controversial  (D) inexhaustible

    (E) remarkable

    3. For centuries animals have been used as---- for people in experiments to assess the effects of therapeutic and other agents that might later be used in humans.

    (A) benefactors  (B) companions

    (C) examples   (D) precedents  (E) surrogates

    4. Social tensions among adult factions can be

  ----by politics, but adolescents and children

    have no such----for resolving their conflict with the exclusive world of adults.

    (A) intensified.. attitude

    (B) complicated.. relief

    (C) frustrated.. justification

    (D) adjusted.. mechanism

    (E) revealed.. opportunity

    5. The state is a network of exchanged benefits and beliefs, ----between rulers and citizens based on those laws and  procedures that are----to the maintenance of community.

    (A) a compromise.. inimical

    (B) an interdependence.. subsidiary

    (C) a counterpoint.. incidental

    (D) an equivalence.. prerequisite

    (E) a reciprocity.. conducive

    6. Far from viewing Jefferson as a skeptical but enlightened intellectual, historians of the 1960's portrayed him as----thinker, eager to fill the young with his political orthodoxy while censoring ideas he did not like.

    (A) an adventurous (B) a doctrinaire

    (C) an eclectic (D) a judicious    (E) a cynical

    7. To have true disciples, a thinker must not be too

  ----: any effective intellectual leader depends

    on the ability of other people to----thought processes that did not originate with them.

    (A) popular.. dismiss

    (B) methodical.. interpret

    (C) idiosyncratic.. reenact

    (D) self-confident.. revitalize

    (E) pragmatic.. discourage

    8. ADULT: CHILD::

    (A) horse: mare (B) cat: kitten (C) swine: sow

    (D) human: animal (E) cow: herd

    9. CLOT: DISSOLVED::

    (A) enthusiast: influenced

    (B) cartoon: distorted    (C) crowd: dispersed

    (D) chain: disengaged    (E) disciple: inspired

    10. GLOSSARY: TEXT::

    (A) bibliography: source

    (B) abstract: dissertation     (C) legend: map

    (D) index: catalog    (E) abbreviation: footnote

    11. FERVOR: ZEALOT::

    (A) antipathy: philanthropist

    (B) improvidence: spendthrift

    (C) concision: politician

    (D) determination: ecologist

    (E) nonchalance: acrobat

    12. SHARD: POTTERY::

    (A) flint: stone  (B) flange: wheel

    (C) cinder: coal  (D) fragment: bone

    (E) tare: grain

    13. FERTILIZE: GROW::

    (A) immunize: resist (B) nourish: enrich

    (C) heat: burn (D) graft: multiply

    (E) prune: dwarf

    14. ATTENTIVE: OFFICIOUS::

    (A) doubtful: ambiguous

    (B) absorbed: engrossed

    (C) refined: snobbish

    (D) magisterial: authoritative

    (E) impromptu: spontaneous

    15. EXORBITANT: MODERATION::

    (A) dispassionate: equanimity

    (B) macabre: interest   (C) perfidious: loyalty

    (D) brilliant: gullibility (E) lavish: extravagance

    16. BLANDISHMENT: COAX::

    (A) medal: honor  (B) budget: save

    (C) diary: reminisce (D) concert: play

    (E) plea: threaten

    The dark regions in the starry night sky are not pockets in the universe that are devoid of stars as had long been thought. Rather, they are dark because of interstellar dust that hides the stars behind it. Although its visual effect is so pronounced, dust is only a minor constituent of the material, extremely low in density, that lies between the stars. Dust accounts for about one percent of the total mass of interstellar matter. The rest is hydrogen and helium gas, with small amounts of other elements. The interstellar material, rather like terrestrial clouds, comes in all shapes and sizes. The average density of interstellar material in the vicinity of our Sun is 1,000 to 10,000 times less than the best terrestrial laboratory vacuum. It is only because of the enormous inter- stellar distances that so little material per unit of volume becomes so significant. Optical astronomy is most directly affected, for although interstellar gas is perfectly transparent, the dust is not.

    17. According to the passage, which of the following is a direct perceptual consequence of interstellar dust?

    (A) Some stars are rendered invisible to observers on Earth.

    (B) Many visible stars are made to seem brighter than they really are.

    (C) The presence of hydrogen and helium gas is revealed.

    (D) The night sky appears dusty at all times to observers on Earth.

    (E) The dust is conspicuously visible against a background of bright stars.

    18. It can be inferred from the passage that the density of interstellar material is

    (A) higher where distances between the stars are shorter

    (B) equal to that of interstellar dust

    (C) unusually low in the vicinity of our Sun

    (D) independent of the incidence of gaseous components

    (E) not homogeneous throughout interstellar space

    19. It can be inferred from the passage that it is because space is so vast that

    (A) little of the interstellar material in it seems substantial

    (B) normal units of volume seem futile for measurements of density

    (C) stars can be far enough from Earth to be obscured even by very sparsely distributed matter

    (D) interstellar gases can, for all practical purposes, be regarded as transparent

    (E) optical astronomy would be of little use even if no interstellar dust existed

    In his 1976 study of slavery in the United States, Herbert Gutman, like Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese, has rightly stressed the slaves' achievements. But unlike these historians, Gut- (5) man gives plantation owners little credit for these achievements. Rather, Gutman argues that one must look to the Black family and the slaves' extended kinship system to understand how crucial achievements, such as the mainte- (10) nance of a cultural heritage and the develop- ment of a communal consciousness, were possible. His findings compel attention.

    Gutman recreates the family and extended kinship structure mainly through an ingenious (15) use of what any historian should draw upon, quantifiable data, derived in this case mostly from plantation birth registers. He also uses accounts of ex-slaves to probe the human reality behind his statistics. These sources indicate that (20) the two-parent household predominated in slave quarters just as it did among freed slaves after emancipation. Although Gutman admits that forced separation by sale was frequent, he shows that the slaves' preference, revealed most clearly (25) on plantations where sale was infrequent, was very much for stable monogamy. In less con- clusive fashion Fogel, Engerman, and Genovese had already indicated the predominance of two- parent households; however, only Gutman (30) emphasizes the preference for stable monogamy and points out what stable monogamy meant for the slaves' cultural heritage. Gutman argues convincingly that the stability of the Black family encouraged the transmission of-and so (35) was crucial in sustaining-the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious expression from one generation to another, a heritage that slaves were continually fashioning out of their African and American experiences. (40)  Gutman's examination of other facets of kinship also produces important findings. Gutman discovers that cousins rarely married, an exogamous tendency that contrasted sharply with the endogamy practiced by the plantation (45) owners. This preference for exogamy, Gutman suggests, may have derived from West African rules governing marriage, which, though they differed from one tribal group to another, all involved some kind of prohibition against (50) unions with close kin. This taboo against cousins' marrying is important, argues Gutman, because it is one of many indications of a strong awareness among slaves of an extended kinship network. The fact that distantly related kin (55) would care for children separated from their families also suggests this awareness. When blood relationships were few, as in newly created plantations in the Southwest, "fictive" kinship arrangements took their place until a new (60) pattern of consanguinity developed. Gutman presents convincing evidence that this extended kinship structure-which he believes developed by the mid-to-late eighteenth century-provided the foundations for the strong communal con- (65) sciousness that existed among slaves.

    In sum, Gutman's study is significant because it offers a closely reasoned and original explan- ation of some of the slaves' achievements, one that correctly emphasizes the resources that slaves themselves possessed.

    20. According to the passage, Fogel. Engerman, Genovese, and Gutman have all done which of the following?

    I. Discounted the influence of plantation owners on slaves' achievements.

    II. Emphasized the achievements of slaves.

    III. Pointed out the prevalence of the two- parent household among slaves.

    IV. Showed the connection between stable monogamy and slaves' cultural heritage.

    (A) I and II only  (B) I and IV only

    (C) II and III only (D) I, III, and IV only

    (E) II, III, and IV only

    21. With which of the following statements regarding the resources that historians ought to use would the author of the passage be most likely to agree?

    (A) Historians ought to make use of written rather than oral accounts.

    (B) Historians should rely primarily on birth registers.

    (C) Historians should rely exclusively on data that can be quantified.

    (D) Historians ought to make use of data that can be quantified.

    (E) Historians ought to draw on earlier historical research but they should do so in order to refute it.

    22. Which of the following statements about the formation of the Black heritage of folklore, music, and religious expression is best supported by the information presented in the passage?

    (A) The heritage was formed primarily out of the experiences of those slaves who attempted to preserve the stability of their families.

    (B) The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of those slaves who married their cousins.

    (C) The heritage was formed more out of the African than out of the American experiences of slaves.

    (D) The heritage was not formed out of the experiences of only a single generation of slaves.

    (E) The heritage was formed primarily out of slaves' experiences of interdependence on newly created plantations in the Southwest.

    23. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the following, the most probable reason why a historian of slavery might be interested in studying the type of plantations mentioned in line 25 is that this type would

    (A) give the historian access to the most complete plantation birth registers

    (B) permit the historian to observe the kinship patterns that had been most popular among West African tribes

    (C) provide the historian with evidence con- cerning the preference of freed slaves for stable monogamy

    (D) furnish the historian with the opportunity to discover the kind of marital com- mitment that slaves themselves chose to have

    (E) allow the historian to examine the influence of slaves' preferences on the actions of plantation owners

    24. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the West African rules governing marriage mentioned in lines 46-50 EXCEPT:

    (A) The rules were derived from rules gov- erning fictive kinship arrangements.

    (B) The rules forbade marriages between close kin.

    (C) The rules are mentioned in Herbert Gutman's study.

    (D) The rules were not uniform in all respects from one West African tribe to another.

    (E) The rules have been considered to be a possible source of slaves' marriage preferences.

    25. Which of the following statements concerning the marriage practices of plantation owners during the period of Black slavery in the United States can most logically be inferred from the information in the passage.

    (A) These practices began to alter sometime around the mid-eighteenth century.

    (B) These practices varied markedly from one region of the country to another.

    (C) Plantation owners usually based their choice of marriage partners on economic considerations.

    (D) Plantation owners often married earlier than slaves.

    (E) Plantation owners often married their cousins.

    26. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

    (A) The author compares and contrasts the work of several historians and then discusses areas for possible new research.

    (B) The author presents his thesis, draws on the work of several historians for evidence to support his thesis, and concludes by reiterating his thesis.

    (C) The author describes some features of a historical study and then uses those features to put forth his own argument.

    (D) The author summarizes a historical study, examines two main arguments from the study, and then shows how the arguments are potentially in conflict with one another.

    (E) The author presents the general argument of a historical study, describes the study in more detail, and concludes with a brief judgments of the study's value.

    27. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content?

    (A) The Influence of Herbert Gutman on Historians of Slavery in the United States

    (B) Gutman's Explanation of How Slaves Could Maintain a Cultural Heritage and Develop a Communal Consciousness

    (C) Slavery in the United States: New Controversy About an Old Subject

    (D) The Black Heritage of Folklore, Music, and Religious Expression: Its Growing Influence

    (E) The Black Family and Extended Kinship Structure: How They Were Important for the Freed Slave

    28. ACCELERATE:

    (A) swerve  (B) arouse (C) dispel

    (D) reject  (E) retard

    29. JABBER:

    (A) tickle    (B) argue    (C) stroke

    (D) speak slowly  (E) joke inaptly

    30. WARMONGER:

    (A) commentator  (B) liaison

    (C) lobbyist  (D) emissary    (E) pacifist

    31. FLUENT:

    (A) insensitive  (B) inappropriate

    (C) derogatory (D) halting   (E) hypocritical

    32. DISSONANCE:

    (A) concord  (B) confederacy

    (C) collusion (D) consent (E) contract

    33. SAVANT:

    (A) flatterer    (B) bore   (C) unlearned person

    (D) unprincipled individual

    (E) misunderstood advisor

    34. BREACH:

    (A) garner  (B) solder  (C) keep silent

    (D) move forward (E) give approval

    35. TORTUOUS:

    (A) enduring (B) informal    (C) cautious

    (D) simplistic (E) straightforward

    36. PLETHORA:

    (A) vacuousness  (B) narrowness

    (C) choice  (D) dearth (E) confusion

    37. POSTURE:

    (A) walk clumsily (B) behave naturally

    (C) impose arbitrarily (D) publicize widely

    (E) explain carefully

    38. GOSSAMER:

    (A) sincere    (B) taciturn    (C) intense

    (D) awkward (E) ponderous

    NO. 4-3  SECTION 5

    Questions 1-3

    A student is planning his class schedule for the fall and spring semesters. He must take exactly three courses each semester. By the end of the spring semester, the student must complete at least three courses in Area F, at least one course in Area G, and at least one course in Area H. The only courses available to the student are:

    Area F:   F102, F201, F202, F203

    Area G:  G101, G102, G103, G201

    Area H:  H101, H102, H202

    The selection of courses is subject to the following restrictions:

    A student can take no more than two courses with the same letter designation per semester.

    Courses with a number designation in the 200's are offered only in the spring semester; courses with a number designation in the 100's are offered in both the fall and spring semesters.

    No course taken in the fall semester can be repeated in the spring semester.

    1. Which of the following is a course that the student must take?

    (A) F102 (B) G101  (C) G102

    (D) H101 (E) H102

    2. Which of the following is a possible schedule for the spring semester?

    (A) F102, G101, and F202

    (B) F102, G101, and G102

    (C) F201, F202, and H102

    (D) G101, G102, and G201

    (E) G102, G201, and H101

    3. If the student takes G101 and G102 in the fall, his spring schedule must include

    (A) F203 (B) F201 and F202    (C) G201

    (D) exactly one course from Area G

    (E) exactly one course from Area H

    4. Japanese factory workers are guaranteed life- time jobs, bonuses paid on the basis of produc- tivity and corporate profits, and a wage rate that is not attached to a particular job. Para- doxically, these guarantees do not discourage factory owners from introducing labor-saving machinery. Such innovations are to the factory owners' advantage despite the fact that the owners must protect the wages of their workers.

    Which of the following, if true, logically explains why the introduction of labor-saving machinery is advantageous to factory owners?

    (A) Before a Japanese factory worker is hired, he or she must present a record of his or her previous productivity.

    (B) Labor-saving machinery increases produc- tivity, thus yielding profits that more than cover the cost of retraining workers for other jobs.

    (C) The purchase and maintenance of new machinery adds significantly to the final cost of the goods produced.

    (D) Factory workers demand a change of pro- cedure in the routine tasks they perform.

    (E) Limited competition exists among Japanese factories for consumer markets.

    5. Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the Regionalist party because she supports the bill.

    Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion above is invalidly drawn?

    (A) Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other issues.

    (B) Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment.

    (C) Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed.

    (D) It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new recycling law.

    (E) Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared by the Region- alist party.

    6. Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this example that the last two digits of a person's birth year will be the same as the last two digits of the year of that person's ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be reversed.

    Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made above?

    (A) The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes.

    (B) The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization based on it.

    (C) The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater than the second-to-last digit.

    (D) The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already presupposed.

    (E) The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is greater than five.

    Questions 7-12

    Two-way roads exist among the following towns surrounding a mountain:

    Between M and N

    Between M and O

    Between O and R

    Between R and T

    Between R and U

    Between T and P

    Between P and S

    There is also a one-way road between town P and town N; the permitted direction of travel is from P to N.

    None of these roads intersect each other except at the towns.

    There are no other towns or roads in the vicinity.

    Bicycles must follow the direction established for general traffic on roads.

    7. To bicycle from S to N by road, it is necessary to go to or through town

    (A) M    (B) P  (C) R (D) T (E) U

    8. If a rock slide temporarily makes the road between O and R impassable, then in order to reach M by road from U, a bicyclist would have to go to or through a total of how many other towns besides M and U?

    (A) 2    (B) 3    (C) 4  (D) 5 (E) 6

    9. If a bridge on the road between M and O is washed out, making the road impassable, a bicyclist would NOT be able to go by road from

    (A) N to M  (B) N to S  (C) P to M

    (D) P to S  (E) R to M

    10. If a rock slide blocks a lane of the road from R to T, with the result that travel on the road can go only one way, from R to T, it will still be possible to go on a bicycle by road from P to

    (A) N and/or S but impossible to go to M, O, R, T, or U

    (B) N, S, and/or T but impossible to go to M, O, R, or U

    (C) M, N, O, and/or T but impossible to go to S, R, or U

    (D) M, O, R, S, and/or T but impossible to go to N or U

    (E) M, N, O, R, S, T, and/or U

    11. Assume that one lane of the road from O to R is closed for repairs, with the result that travel on the road goes only one way, from R to O. It will then be possible to travel by road on a bicycle among any of the towns M, N, O, P, R, S, T, and U among which such travel was possible before the closing, if which of the fol- lowing one-way temporary roads is constructed?

    (A) From M to U  (B) From P to R

    (C) From S to R  (D) From S to U

    (E) From T to U

    12. If M is lower and T is higher on the mountain than any of the other towns in the vicinity and N, P, and R are all at the same altitude, the distance by road going from U to S will be shortened by building a two-way road along a level straight line between

    (A) R and N  (B) R and M (C) P and M

    (D) P and R  (E) T and N

    Questions 13-17

    A woman plans to plant exactly six kinds of herbs: oregano, sage, rosemary, parsley, majoram, and thyme. She places six pots side by side in a straight line and numbers the pots consecutively from 1 to 6, left to right. She will plant only one kind of herb in each pot. The arrangement of the herbs is subject to the following conditions:

    Oregano must be planted in some pot to the left of parsley.

    Majoram must be planted in some pot to the left of thyme.

    Sage cannot be planted in pot 1.

    Rosemary must be planted next to oregano.

    13. Which of the following arrangements of herbs from pot 1 through 6, respectively, conforms to the conditions above?

    (A) Thyme, oregano, rosemary, majoram, parsley, sage

    (B) Sage, majoram, thyme, rosemary, oregano, parsley

    (C) Majoram, sage, thyme, parsley, rosemary, oregano

    (D) Oregano, parsley, majoram, thyme, sage, rosemary

    (E) Rosemary, oregano, majoram, sage, parsley, thyme

    14. If sage is planted in some pot to the right of parsley, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Sage is planted in some pot to the right of oregano.

    (B) Sage is planted in some pot to the right of majoram.

    (C) Sage is planted in some pot to the right of thyme.

    (D) Parsley is planted in some pot to the left of majoram.

    (E) Parsley is planted in some pot to the left of rosemary.

    15. If thyme is planted in some pot to the left of oregano, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Thyme is planted in some pot to the left of sage.

    (B) Thyme is planted in some pot to the left of rosemary.

    (C) Oregano is planted in some pot to the left of sage.

    (D) Oregano is planted in some pot to the left of rosemary.

    (E) Oregano is planted in some pot to the left of majoram.

    16. If parsley is planted in some pot to the left of majoram, majoram could be planted in which of the following pots?

    (A) 1  (B) 2  (C) 3  (D) 4  (E) 6

    17. If oregano is planted next to thyme, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Majoram is planted in pot 1.

    (B) Sage is planted in pot 2.

    (C) Rosemary is planted in pot 3.

    (D) Oregano is planted in pot 4.

    (E) Thyme is planted in pot 5.

    Questions 18-22

    In a certain target-shooting game, a team must shoot at seven targets. Exactly one shot is allowed for shooting at each target. The targets are numbered in consecutive order from 1 to 7. The game is being played by a three-member team consisting of players S, T, and U, who must observe the following rules:

    The seven targets must be shot at in consecutive order, starting with target 1.

    Both S and U can shoot at odd-numbered and even-numbered targets.

    T cannot shoot at even-numbered targets.

    S and T must each shoot at no fewer than two targets.

    U must take exactly one shot.

    S cannot take three consecutive shots.

    18. If all team members take exactly their required minimum number of shots before any team member takes an additional shot, then the next target to be shot at in the game after the required minimum of shots is target

    (A) 3  (B) 4    (C) 5  (D) 6  (E) 7

    19. If T takes the same total number of shots during the game as one other team member, then which of the following is true?

    (A) S must shoot at even-numbered targets only.

    (B) T must shoot at all of the odd-numbered targets.

    (C) U must shoot at an odd-numbered target.

    (D) S and U must each shoot at exactly one odd-numbered target.

    (E) Either S or U, but not both, must shoot at exactly one odd-numbered target.

    20. If all odd-numbered but no even-numbered targets are hit during the game, then all of the following are possible total numbers of hits for each player at the end of the game EXCEPT

    (A) S=2; T=1; U=1 (B) S=1; T=2; U=1

    (C) S=0; T=3; U=1 (D) S=2; T=2; U=0

    (E) S=1; T=3; U=0

    21. If, during the game, S and T each hit exactly half of the targets that each shoots at, then the lowest possible total number of hits that the team could make in the game is

    (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

    22. There is one and only one of the seven targets that U can shoot at during the game if the team agrees in advance that

    (A) S will shoot at exactly four targets

    (B) S will shoot at targets 2, 4, and 6 only

    (C) T will take exactly three shots

    (D) T will shoot at targets 1 and 7 only

    (E) T will shoot at targets 3 and 5 only

    23. A small dose of widely used tranquilizer allows people to lie during lie detector tests without being discovered. The stress responses that lie detector tests measure can be inhibited by the drug without noticeable side effects. One of the implications of this fact is that the drug can also be effective in reducing stress in everyday situations.

    An assumption of the passage is that

    (A) tranquilizers are always an effective treatment for stress

    (B) the inhibition of stress responses increases subjective stress

    (C) stress as measured by a lie detector is similar to everyday stress

    (D) persons who lie during a lie detector test always display signs of stress

    (E) it is not desirable to reduce stress in every- day situations

    24. The attitude that it is all right to do what harms no one but oneself is usually accompanied by a disregard for the actual interdependence of people. Destroying one's own life or health means not being available to help family members or the community; it means, instead, absorbing the limited resources of the commu- nity for food, health services, and education without contributing fully to the community.

    Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the view expressed above?

    (A) The cost of avoidable accidents and illnesses raises health insurance rates for everyone.

    (B) Harm to one person can result in an indirect benefit, such as the availability of work in health-related fields, to others.

    (C) Life would be dull if it were necessary to abstain from all of the minor pleasures that entail some risk of harm to a person who indulges in them.

    (D) The contribution a person makes to the community cannot be measured by that person's degree of health.

    (E) The primary damage caused by the consumption of alcohol, tobacco, and unauthorized drugs is done to the person who uses those substances.

    25. Superficially, college graduates in 1982 resemble college graduates of 1964; they are fairly conser- vative, well dressed, and interested in tradition; they respect their parents. But there is a deep- seated difference: a majority of the members of the class of 1982 who were surveyed in their freshman year stated that making a good income was an important reason for their decision to go to college.

    The statements in the passage above, if true, best support which of the following conclusions?

    (A) The concerns of college graduate of 1964 were superficial compared to the financial worries of college graduates of 1982.

    (B) Fewer than half the students of the class of 1964 declared as freshmen that they entered college in order to increase their earning potential.

    (C) Educational background did not play as significant a part in determining income in 1964 as it does in 1982.

    (D) A majority of the members of the class of 1964 revised their reasons for attending college between their freshman year and college graduation.

    (E) College graduates of 1964 were actually less conservative than college graduates of 1982.

    NO.4-3  SECTION 6

    Questions 1-5

    Access to the XRT computer's data sets is obtained by entering job names into the computer. Each job name must consist of a three-word sequence that conforms to the following rules:

    Each word must consist of three, five, or seven letters.

    The letters R, T, and X must appear exactly once in each job name, not necessarily in that order.

    The third word must contain more letters than the second word.

    Each word must begin with a different letter.

    1. Which of the following could be a job name for the XRT computer?

    (A) AXE  DIVER  BOAST

    (B) BOX  ROAM  NEVER

    (C) CALLS  EXERT  WINDOWS

    (D) EXPECT  ONE  PICTURE

    (E) INCOME  TAX  RETURNS

    2. If BOXER is the second word in a job name for the XRT computer, which of the following could be the first and third words, respectively?

    (A) ARM, RUNNING  (B) BID, TAMES

    (C) CAMPS, TRAINER

    (D) DID, STEAMED

    (E) FOX, RENTED

    3. If EXTRA is the third word in a job name for the XRT computer, which of the following CANNOT be the second word?

    (A) ACE (B) BEE    (C) END

    (D) FOE (E) GUM

    4. The sequence of words MOTHS, VEX, MAR is not a possible job name for the XRT computer. Which of the following procedures if performed on the sequence produces a sequence that could be a job name for the XRT computer?

    (A) Reversing the order of the letters in a specific word and removing a specific letter from the longest word

    (B) Reversing the order of the letters in a specific word and reversing the order of the three words

    (C) Reversing the order of the letters in a specific word

    (D) Reversing the order of the three words

    (E) Removing a specific letter from the longest word

    5. How many letters can the second words in job names for the XRT computer have?

    (A) Three, but they cannot have five or seven

    (B) Five, but they cannot have three or seven

    (C) Seven, but they cannot have three or five

    (D) Three or five, but they cannot have seven

    (E) Five or seven, but they cannot have three

    6. Experienced pilots often have more trouble than novice pilots in learning to fly the newly devel- oped ultralight airplanes. Being accustomed to heavier craft, experienced pilots, when flying ultralight craft, seem not to respect the wind as much as they should.

    The passage implies that the heavier aircraft mentioned above are

    (A) harder to land than ultralight aircraft

    (B) not as popular with pilots as ultralight aircraft

    (C) not as safe as ultralight aircraft

    (D) more fuel-efficient than ultralight aircraft

    (E) easier to handle in wind than ultralight aircraft

    7. One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the potential customer's attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that people know of a product than that they know something about it.

    Which of the following is implied by the passage above?

    (A) People can remember a product without having much information about it.

    (B) Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people's memories.

    (C) Attracting a potential customer's attention is a simple matter.

    (D) The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes.

    (E) Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product.

    8. Spiritualism, the doctrine that it is possible to communicate with the spirits of the deceased through specially talented persons called mediums, is fraudulent. As long ago as the 1870's, Professor Edwin Lankester showed that the purported "spirit writing" of the famed medium Henry Slade was present on a slate before the "spirits" were supposed to have begun writing on it. This example demonstrates that the doctrine of spiritualism is worthless.

    If the example above is correctly reported, which of the following is the best argument against the conclusion drawn above?

    (A) There cannot be proof that the spirits of the deceased do not exist.

    (B) The conclusion depends on a historical report, and such reports of past events do not recount all of the circumstances.

    (C) The cited evidence presupposes what is to be proved.

    (D) A single instance of fraud cannot show that the doctrine is false in general.

    (E) The correctness of the report depends on the veracity of antispiritualists, who may be expected to be biased.

    Questions 9-13

    As shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes of candy. Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy to be selected from F, G, and H, and exactly three kinds of soft candy to be selected from P, Q, R, S, and T, with the following restrictions:

    G cannot be in the same gift box as T.

    P cannot be in the same gift box as S.

    Q cannot be in the same gift box as T.

    9. If G is included in a gift box, which of the following is a kind of candy that must also be included?

    (A) F  (B) H  (C) P  (D) Q  (E) S

    10. If H not included in a particular gift box, any of the following kinds of candies can be included EXCEPT

    (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S (E) T

    11. Which of the following kinds of candies must be included in each of the gift boxes?

    (A) F    (B) G    (C) H    (D) P (E) R

    12. If T is included in a gift box, the box must also include which of the following kind so candy?

    (A) F and G  (B) F and H (C) G and H

    (D) P and R  (E) R and S

    13. In a gift box that contains an acceptable assort- ment of candies, which of the following substitu- tions will always result in another acceptable assortment?

    (A) P for S  (B) Q for R (C) S for R

    (D) T for P  (E) T for Q

    Questions 14-18

    A doctor has prescribed an exercise program for a patient. Choosing from exercises P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W, the patient must perform a routine of exactly five different exercises each day. In any day's routine, except the first, exactly three of the exercises must be ones that were included in the routine done on the previous day, and any permissible routine must also satisfy the following conditions:

    If P is in a routine, V cannot be done in that routine.

    If Q is in a routine, T must be one of the exercises done after Q in that routine.

    If R is in a routine, V must be one of the exercises done after R in the routine.

    The fifth exercise of any routine must be either S or U.

    14. Which of the following could be the routine for the first day of the program?

    (A) P, R, V, S, U  (B) Q, S, R, V, U

    (C) T, U, R, V, S  (D) U, Q, S, T, W

    (E) V, Q, R, T, S

    15. If one day's routine is P, Q, W, T, U, each of the following could be the next day's routine EXCEPT

    (A) Q, R, V, T, U  (B) Q, T, V, W, S

    (C) W, R, V, T, U  (D) W, T, U, V, S

    (E) W, T, S, P, U

    16. Which of the following is true of any permissible routine?

    (A) P cannot be done third.

    (B) Q cannot be done third.

    (C) T cannot be done third.

    (D) R cannot be done fourth.

    (E) U cannot be done fourth.

    17. If the patient chooses R and W for the first day's routine, which of the following could be the other three exercises chosen?

    (A) P, T, U  (B) Q, S, V (C) Q, T, V

    (D) T, S, U  (E) T, S, V

    18. If R is the third exercise in a routine, which of the following CANNOT be the second exercise in that routine?

    (A) Q  (B) S (C) T (D) U (E) W

    Questions 19-22

    Six campers-Alice, Betty, Carmen, Dora, Gina, and Harriet-are arranging a dishwashing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash dishes on only one day.

    Betty washes either on day 2 or on day 6.

    If Alice washes on day 1, Carmen washes on day 4; Carmen does not wash on day 4 unless Alice washes on day 1.

    If Alice washes on day 1, Harriet washes on day 5; Harriet does not wash on day 5 unless Alice washes on day 1.

    If Gina does not wash on day 3, Alice washes on day 3.

    If Alice washes on day 4, Dora washes on day 5.

    If Betty washes on day 2, Gina washes on day 5.

    If Harriet washes on day 6, Dora washes on day 4.

    19. Which of the following is an acceptable order in which the campers can wash dishes from the first to the last day?

    (A) Dora, Betty, Alice, Gina, Carmen, Harriet

    (B) Betty, Alice, Harriet, Carmen, Gina, Dora

    (C) Harriet, Gina, Betty, Carmen, Dora, Alice

    (D) Carmen, Betty, Alice, Dora, Gina, Harriet

    (E) Alice, Betty, Dora, Carmen, Gina, Harriet

    20. If Dora washes on day 6, on which day does Carmen wash?

    (A) 1  (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

    21. If Alice washes on day 1, who washes on day 2?

    (A) Betty (B) Carmen (C) Dora

    (D) Gina (E) Harriet

    22. If Betty washes on day 2, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the days that could be the day on which Harriet washes?

    (A) 1 (B) 4   (C) 1, 4   (D) 4, 6   (E) 1, 4, 6

    23. Some would have you believe that the economic problems of Western Europe have been caused by the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) oil cartel. This is nonsense. After all, Great Britain is not dependent on OPEC oil and yet Great Britain suffers from the same economic problems that afflict France and West Germany.

    The author's point is made primarily by

    (A) offering Great Britain as a counterexample

    (B) analyzing the economic difficulties of France and West Germany

    (C) pointing out a misconception in reasoning

    (D) proposing an alternative explanation

    (E) drawing an analogy between France and West Germany

    24. The once widely held perception of intellectuals as the clarifiers of fundamental moral issues is no longer valid today. Intellectuals no longer act as advocates for oppressed groups. Instead of applying their  insights and analyses to the problems of these groups, they leave the debate to the politicians.

    The logical structure of the passage above depends upon the author's closely linking the clarification of fundamental moral issues with

    (A) intellectualism

    (B) advocacy on behalf of oppressed group

    (C) insight and analysis

    (D) debate on contemporary practical issues

    (E) the role of politicians

    25. The state with the greatest fraction of its popu- lation in urban areas, if the urban areas are con- sidered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is ex- ceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas. Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas.

    If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?

    (A) No state has a smaller fraction of its popu- lation in rural areas than California has.

    (B) The current rate of population growth in California's urban areas exceeds the current rate of population growth in California's rural areas.

    (C) In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent of the land.

    (D) No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than California has.

    (E) California's population density is among the highest of all states in the United States.

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