您的位置:外语教育网 > 考试英语 > GRE > 经典题库 正文
  • 站内搜索:


2006-01-23 00:00

    No.4-1  SECTION 2

    1. Hydrogen is the ----element of the universe in that it provides the building blocks from which the other elements are produced.

    (A) steadiest   (B) expendable   (C) lightest

    (D) final    (E) fundamental

    2. Few of us take the pains to study our cherished convictions; indeed, we almost have a natural--- -doing so.

    (A) aptitude for   (B) repugnance to

    (C) interest in  (D) ignorance of

    (E) reaction after

    3. It is his dubious distinction to have proved what nobody would think of denying, that Romero at the age of sixty-four writes with all the characteristics of----.

    (A) maturity    (B) fiction (C) inventiveness

    (D) art   (E) brilliance

    4. The primary criterion for----a school is its recent performance: critics are----to extend credit for earlier victories.

    (A) evaluating .. prone

    (B) investigating .. hesitant

    (C) judging .. reluctant

    (D) improving .. eager

    (E) administering .. persuaded

    5. Number theory is rich in problems of an especially----sort: they are tantalizingly simple to state but----difficult to solve.

    (A) cryptic.. deceptively

    (B) spurious.. equally

    (C) abstruse.. ostensibly

    (D) elegant.. rarely

    (E) vexing ..notoriously

    6. In failing to see that the justice's pronouncement merely----previous decisions rather than actually establishing a precedent, the novice law clerk----the scope of the justice's judgment.

    (A) synthesized.. limited

    (B) overturned.. misunderstood

    (C) endorsed.. nullified

    (D) qualified.. overemphasized

    (E) recapitulated.. defined

    7. When theories formerly considered to be---- in their scientific objectivity are found instead to reflect a consistent observational and evaluative bias, then the presumed neutrality of science gives way to the recognition that categories of knowledge are human----.

    (A) disinterested.. constructions

    (B) callous.. errors

    (C) verifiable.. prejudices

    (D) convincing.. imperatives

    (E) unassailable.. fantasies

    8. CHOIR: SINGER::

    (A) election: voter

    (B) anthology: poet

    (C) cast: actor

    (D) orchestra: composer

    (E) convention: speaker


    (A) iridescent: colorful

    (B) perceptible: visible

    (C) discordant: harmonious

    (D) peppery: salty

    (E) deafening: loud


    (A) renegade: ambition

    (B) extrovert: reserve

    (C) reprobate: humility

    (D) zealot: loyalty

    (E) strategist: decisiveness

    11. SLITHER: SNAKE::

    (A) perch: eagle  (B) bask: lizard

    (C) waddle: duck  (D) circle: hawk

    (E) croak: frog


    (A) defer: ignorance   (B) renounce: mistrust

    (C) encroach: jealousy (D) demur: objection

    (E) reject: disappointment


    (A) prophet: rule

    (B) profiteer: consume

    (C) profligate: demand

    (D) prodigal: squander

    (E) prodigy: wonder


    (A) curious: knowledge

    (B) lucid: sight

    (C) torpid: motion

    (D) ephemeral: touch

    (E) piquant: taste


    (A) centrifuge: axis

    (B) osmosis: membrane

    (C) tension: elongation

    (D) elasticity: variation

    (E) gas: propulsion


    (A) assistance: endowment

    (B) funds: fellowship

    (C) credit: payment

    (D) debt: obligation

    (E) loan: note

    By the time the American colonists took up arms against Great Britain in order to secure their indepen- dence, the institution of Black slavery was deeply entrenched. But the contradiction inherent in this situation was, for many, a source of constant embar- rassment. "It always appeared a most iniquitous scheme to me," Abigail Adams wrote her husband in 1774, "to fight ourselves for what we are daily robbing and plundering from those who have as good a right to freedom as we have."

    Many Americans besides Abigail Adams were struck by the inconsistency of their stand during the War of Independence, and they were not averse to making moves to emancipate the slaves. Quakers and other religious groups organized antislavery societies, while numerous individuals manumitted their slaves. In fact, within several years of the end of the War of Independence, most of the Eastern states had made provisions for the gradual emancipation of slaves.

    17. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?

    (A) The War of Independence produced among many Black Americans a heightened consciousness of the inequities in Ameri- can society.

    (B) The War of Independence strengthened the bonds of slavery of many Black Ameri- cans while intensifying their desire to be free.

    (C) The War of Independence exposed to many Americans the contradiction of slavery in a country seeking its freedom and resulted in efforts to resolve that contradiction.

    (D) The War of Independence provoked strong criticisms by many Americans of the institution of slavery, but produced little substantive action against it.

    (E) The War of Independence renewed the efforts of many American groups toward achieving Black emancipation.

    18. The passage contains information that would support which of the following statements about the colonies before the War of Independence?

    (A) They contained organized antislavery societies.

    (B) They allowed individuals to own slaves.

    (C) They prohibited religious groups from political action.

    (D) They were inconsistent in their legal definitions of slave status.

    (E) They encouraged abolitionist societies to expand their influence.

    19. According to the passage, the War of Indepen- dence was embarrassing to some Americans for which of the following reasons?

    I. It involved a struggle for many of the same liberties that Americans were denying to others.

    II. It involved a struggle for independence from the very nation that had founded the colonies.

    III. It involved a struggle based on inconsis- tencies in the participants' conceptions of freedom.

    (A) I only    (B) II only    (C) I and II only

    (D) I and III only  (E) I, II, and III

    20. Which of the following statements regarding American society in the years immediately following the War of Independence is best supported by the passage?

    (A)The unexpected successes of the anti- slavery societies led to their gradual demise in the Eastern states.

    (B) Some of the newly independent American states had begun to make progress toward abolishing slavery.

    (C) Americans like Abigail Adams became disillusioned with the slow progress of emancipation and gradually abandoned the cause.

    (D) Emancipated slaves gradually were accepted in the Eastern states as equal members of American society.

    (E) The abolition of slavery in many Eastern states was the result of close cooperation between religious groups and free Blacks.

    The evolution of sex ratios has produced, in most plants and animals with separate sexes, approxi- mately equal numbers of males and females. Why should this be so? Two main kinds of answers have been offered. One is couched in terms of advantage to population. It is argued that the sex ratio will evolve so as to maximize the number of meetings between individuals of the opposite sex. This is essentially a "group selection" argument. The other, and in my view correct, type of answer was first put forward by Fisher in 1930. This "genetic" argument starts from the assumption that genes can influence the relative numbers of male and female offspring produced by an individual carrying the genes. That sex ratio will be favored which maximizes the number of descen- dants an individual will have and hence the number of gene copies transmitted. Suppose that the popula- tion consisted mostly of females: then an individual who produced sons only would have more grand- children. In contrast, if the population consisted mostly of males, it would pay to have daughters. If, however, the population consisted of equal numbers of males and females, sons and daughters would be equally valuable. Thus a one-to-one sex ratio is the only stable ratio; it is an "evolutionarily stable strategy." Although Fisher wrote before the mathe- matical theory of games had been developed, his theory incorporates the essential feature of a game- that the best strategy to adopt depends on what others are doing.

    Since Fisher's time, it has been realized that genes can sometimes influence the chromosome or gamete in which they find themselves so that the gamete will be more likely to participate in fertilization. If such a gene occurs on a sex-determining (X or Y) chromo- some, then highly aberrant sex ratios can occur. But more immediately relevant to game theory are the sex ratios in certain parasitic wasp species that have a large excess of females. In these species, fertilized eggs develop into females and unfertilized eggs into males. A female stores sperm and can determine the sex of each egg she lays by fertilizing it or leaving it unfer- tilized. By Fisher's argument, it should still pay a female to produce equal numbers of sons and daughters. Hamilton, noting that the eggs develop within their host-the larva of another insect-and that the newly emerged adult wasps mate immediately and disperse, offered a remarkably cogent analysis. Since only one female usually lays eggs in a given larva, it would pay her to produce one male only, because this one male could fertilize all his sisters on emergence. Like Fisher, Hamilton looked for an evolutionarily stable strategy, but he went a step further in recognizing that he was looking for a strategy.

    21. The author suggests that the work of Fisher and Hamilton was similar in that both scientists

    (A) conducted their research at approximately the same time

    (B) sought to manipulate the sex ratios of some of the animals they studied

    (C) sought an explanation of why certain sex ratios exist and remain stable

    (D) studied game theory, thereby providing important groundwork for the later development of strategy theory

    (E) studied reproduction in the same animal species

    22. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers Fisher's work to be

    (A) fallacious and unprofessional

    (B) definitive and thorough

    (C) inaccurate but popular, compared with Hamilton's work

    (D) admirable, but not as up-to-date as Hamilton's work

    (E) accurate, but trivial compared with Hamilton's work

    23. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about wasps?

    I. How many eggs does the female wasp usually lay in a single host larva?

    II. Can some species of wasp determine sex ratios among their offspring?

    III What is the approximate sex ratio among the offspring of parasitic wasps?

    (A) I only   (B) II only   (C) III only

    (D) I and II only  (E) II and III only

    24. It can be inferred that the author discusses the genetic theory in greater detail than the group selection theory primarily because he believes that the genetic theory is more

    (A) complicated   (B) accurate   (C) popular

    (D) comprehensive   (E) accessible

    25. According to the passage, successful game strategy depends on

    (A) the ability to adjust one's behavior in light of the behavior of others

    (B) one's awareness that there is safety in numbers

    (C) the degree of stability one can create in one's immediate environment

    (D) the accuracy with which one can predict future events

    (E) the success one achieves in conserving and storing one's resources

    26. It can be inferred from the passage that the mathematical theory of games has been

    (A) developed by scientists with an interest in genetics

    (B) adopted by Hamilton in his research

    (C) helpful in explaining how genes can some- times influence gametes

    (D) based on animals studies conducted prior to 1930

    (E) useful in explaining some biological phenomena

    27. Which of the following is NOT true of the species of parasitic wasps discussed in the passage?

    (A) Adult female wasps are capable of storing sperm.

    (B) Female wasps lay their eggs in the larvae of other insects.

    (C) The adult female wasp can be fertilized by a male that was hatched in the same larva as herself.

    (D) So few male wasps are produced that extinction is almost certain.

    (E) Male wasps do not emerge from their hosts until they reach sexual maturity.

    28. COMMOTION:

    (A) desirability      (B) likability

    (C) propensity      (D) changeability

    (E) tranquillity


    (A) qualified     (B) definite    (C) stubborn

    (D) effective     (E) committed

    30. DIVERGE:

    (A) relay    (B) bypass (C) enclose

    (D) work quickly   (E) come together

    31. FLIPPANT:

    (A) evenly distributed     (B) well coordinated

    (C) inflexible  (D) sane  (E) earnest

    32. NEXUS:

    (A) disconnected components

    (B) tangled threads    (C) lost direction

    (D) unseen obstacle   (E) damaged parts

    33. LEVY:

    (A) reconsider    (B) relinquish

    (C) repatriate (D) revitalize  (E) rescind

    34. ANOMALOUS:

    (A) porous (B) viscous   (C) essential

    (D) normal (E) elemental

    35. GROUSE:

    (A) rejoice (B) rekindle (C) restore

    (D) reject (E) reflect

    36. GIST:

    (A) tangential point (B) tentative explanation

    (C) faulty assumption (D) flawed argument

    (E) meaningless distinction


    (A) decorum     (B) candor (C) resolution

    (D) perplexity (E) mediation

    38. LIMPID:

    (A) rampant  (B) vapid     (C) turbid

    (D) rigid  (E) resilient

    No. 4-1  SECTION 3

    Questions 1-7

    A certain code uses only the letters K, L, M, N, and O. Words in the code are written from left to right. Code words are only those words that conform to the following conditions:

    The minimum length for code words is two letters, not necessarily different from each other.

    K cannot be the first letter in a word.

    L must occur more than once in a word, if it occurs at all.

    M cannot be the last letter in a word, nor the next-to-the-last letter.

    N must occur in a word if K occurs in the word.

    O cannot be the last letter in a word unless

    L occurs in the word.

    1. Which of the following letters could be placed after O in L O to form a code word exactly three letters long?

    (A) K  (B) L (C) M (D) N (E) O

    2. If the only kinds of letters that are available are K, L, and M, then the total number of different code words, each exactly two letters long, that it is possible to make is

    (A) 1  (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9  (E) 12

    3. Which of the following is a code word?

    (A) K L L N      (B) L O M L   (C) M L L O

    (D) N M K O  (E) O N K M

    4. What is the total number of different code words exactly three identical letters long that it is possible to make?

    (A) 1    (B) 2    (C) 3    (D) 4    (E) 5

    5. The code word M M L L O K N can be turned into another code word by carrying out any one of the following changes EXCEPT

    (A) replacing every L with an N

    (B) replacing the first M with an O

    (C) replacing the N with an O

    (D) moving the O to the immediate right of the N

    (E) moving the second L to the immediate left of the K

    6. Which of the following is not a code word but could be turned into one by changing the order of the letters within the word?

    (A) K L M N O  (B) L L L K N

    (C) M K N O N   (D) N K L M L

    (E) O M M L L

    7. Which of the following could be turned into a code word by replacing the "X" with a letter used in the code?

    (A) M K X N O   (B) M X K M N

    (C) X M M K O   (D) X M O L K

    (E) X O K L L

    Questions 8-9

    "On the whole," Ms. Dennis remarked, "engi- neering students are lazier now than they used to be. I know because fewer and fewer of my students regularly do the work they are assigned. "

    8. The conclusion drawn above depends on which of the following assumptions?

    (A) Engineering students are working less because, in a booming market, they are spending more and more time investigating different job opportunities.

    (B) Whether or not students do the work they are assigned is a good indication of how lazy they are.

    (C) Engineering students should work harder than students in less demanding fields.

    (D) Ms. Dennis' students are doing less work because Ms. Dennis is not as effective a teacher as she once was.

    (E) Laziness is something most people do not outgrow.

    9. Which of the following identifies a flaw in Ms. Dennis' reasoning?

    (A) Plenty of people besides engineering students do not work as hard as they should.

    (B) Ms. Dennis does not consider the excuses her students may have for being lazy.

    (C) The argument does not propose any con- structive solutions to the problem it identifies.

    (D) The argument assumes that Ms. Dennis' students are representative of engineering students in general.

    (E) Ms. Dennis does not seem sympathetic to the problems of her students.

    10. Popular culture in the United States has become Europeanized to an extent unimaginable twenty- five years ago. Not many people then drank wine with meals, and no one drank imported mineral water. No idea would have been more astonishing than that Americans would pay to watch soccer games. Such thoughts arise because of a report that the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials has just adopted a proposal to develop the country's first comprehensive interstate system of routes for bicycles.

    Which of the following inferences is best supported by the passage?

    (A) Long-distance bicycle routes are used in Europe.

    (B) Drinking imported mineral water is a greater luxury than drinking imported wine.

    (C) United States culture has benefited from exposure to foreign ideas.

    (D) Most Europeans make regular use of bicycles.

    (E) The influence of the United States on European culture has assumed unprecedented proportions in the last twenty-five years.

    Questions 11-16

    Six knights-P, Q, R, S, T, and U-assemble for a long journey in two traveling parties. For security, each traveling party consists of at least two knights. The two parties travel by separate routes, northern and southern. After one month, the routes of the northern and southern groups converge for a brief time and at that point the knights can, if they wish, rearrange their traveling parties before continuing, again in two parties along separate northern and southern routes. Throughout the entire trip, the composition of traveling parties must be in accord with the following conditions:

    P and R are deadly enemies and, although they may meet briefly, can never travel together.

    P must travel in the same party with S.

    Q cannot travel by the southern route.

    U cannot change routes.

    11. If one of the two parties of knights consists of P and U and two other knights and travels by the southern route, the other members of this party besides P and U must be

    (A) Q and S  (B) Q and T   (C) R and S

    (D) R and T  (E) S and T

    12. If each of the two parties of knights consists of exactly three members, which of the following is NOT a possible traveling party and route?

    (A) P, S, Q by the northern route

    (B) P, S, T by the northern route

    (C) P, S, T by the southern route

    (D) P, S, U by the southern route

    (E) Q, R, T by the northern route

    13. If one of the two parties of knights consists of U and two other knights and travels by the northern route, the other members of this party besides U must be

    (A) P and S   (B) P and T  (C) Q and R

    (D) Q and T  (E) R and T

    14. If each of the two parties of knights consists of exactly three members, S and U are members of different parties, and R travels by the northern route, then T must travel by the

    (A) southern route with P and S

    (B) southern route with Q and R

    (C) southern route with R and U

    (D) northern route with Q and R

    (E) northern route with R and U

    15. If, when the two parties of knights encounter one another after a month, exactly one knight changes from one traveling party to the other traveling party, that knight must be

    (A) P   (B) Q   (C) R   (D) S   (E)T

    16. If one of the changes after a month's traveling is that T changes from a party of two knights traveling by the southern route to a party of four knights traveling by the northern route, then all of the following must be true EXCEPT:

    (A) During the first month, U was traveling by the southern route.

    (B) During the first month, P was traveling by the northern route.

    (C) During the first month, R was traveling with T.

    (D) After the first month, R travels with T.

    (E) After the first month, S travels by the southern route.

    Questions 17-19

    A particular auto race involved eight cars-S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z. At the end of every lap, an accurate record was made of the position of the cars, from first (position 1) to last (position 8). For each of the records the following statements are true:

    No two cars occupy the same position.

    S is in some position ahead of Z.

    There is exactly one car between T and X, regardless of whether T or X is ahead of the other.

    U is in the position immediately ahead of Y.

    Both V and Y are in positions ahead of S.

    W is in first position.

    17. Which of the following could be noted on one of the records as the positions of the cars from position 1 through position 8?

    (A) W, U, S, Y, V, T, Z, X

    (B) W, U, Y, S, T, V, Z, X

    (C) W, U, Y, V, S, T, Z, X

    (D) W, U, Y, Z, V, T, S, X

    (E) W, V, S, U, Y, T, Z, X

    18. If on one of the records Y and X are in positions 4 and 5, respectively, which of the following must be true of that record?

    (A) S is in position 2.   (B) S is in position 7.

    (C) T is in position 3.   (D) V is in position 3.

    (E) Z is in position 8.

    19. If on one of the records V is in some position behind T, which car must be in position 7 on that record?

    (A) S (B) T   (C) V   (D) X   (E) Z

    Questions 20-22

    An airline company is offering a particular group of people two package tours involving eight European cities-London, Madrid, Naples, Oslo, Paris, Rome, Stockholm, and Trieste. While half the group goes on tour number one to visit five of the cities, the other half will go on tour number two to visit the other three cities. The group must select the cities to be included in each tour. The selection must conform to the following restrictions:

    Madrid cannot be in the same tour as Oslo.

    Naples must be in the same tour as Rome.

    If tour number one includes Paris, it must also include London.

    If tour number two includes Stockholm, it cannot include Madrid.

    20. If tour number two includes Rome, which of the following CANNOT be true?

    (A) London is in tour number one.

    (B) Oslo is in tour number one.

    (C) Trieste is in tour number one.

    (D) Madrid is in tour number two.

    (E) Stockholm is in tour number two.

    21. If tour number two includes Paris, which of the following must be true?

    (A) London is in tour number one.

    (B) Naples is in tour number one.

    (C) London is in tour number two.

    (D) Oslo is in tour number two.

    (E) Trieste is in tour number two.

    22. If tour number one includes Paris and tour number two includes Madrid, which of the following must also be included in tour number two?

    (A) London  (B) Oslo    (C) Rome

    (D) Stockholm (E) Trieste

    23. In the 1980 United States census, marital status was described under one of five categories: single, now married (but not separated), sepa- rated, divorced, widowed. In the category "separated," including both those who were legally separated and those who were estranged and living apart from their spouses, one million more women than men were counted.

    Which of the following, if true, provide(s) or contribute(s) to an explanation for this result?

    I. There are more women of marriageable age than men of marriageable age in the United States.

    II. More of the separated men than sepa- rated women in the United States could not be found by the census takers during the census.

    III. Many more separated men than separ- ated women left the United States for residence in another country.

    (A) I only  (B) II only (C) III only

    (D) I and II only  (E) II and III only

    24. In recent years shrimp harvests of commercial fishermen in the South Atlantic have declined dramatically in total weight. The decline is due primarily to competition from a growing number of recreational fishermen, who are able to net young shrimp in the estuaries where they mature.

    Which of the following regulatory actions would be most likely to help increase the shrimp harvests of commercial fishermen?

    (A) Requiring commercial fishermen to fish in estuaries

    (B) Limiting the total number of excursions per season for commercial fishermen

    (C) Requiring recreational fishermen to use large-mesh nets in their fishing

    (D) Putting an upper limit on the size of the shrimp recreational fishermen are allowed to catch

    (E) Allowing recreational fishermen to move out of estuaries into the South Atlantic

    25. The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of more than $100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries.

    If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?

    (A) Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with net income above $100 million was earned from foreign sources.

    (B) Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47 percent of the total taxable income from foreign sources.

    (C) Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60 percent of all reported taxable income.

    (D) Some of the corporations with net income above $100 million reported income from 10 or more countries.

    (E) Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more countries reported net income of more than $100 million.

    No4-1   SECTION 5

    1. Although the minuet appeared simple, its---- steps had to be studied very carefully before they could be gracefully----in public.

    (A) progressive.. revealed

    (B) intricate.. executed

    (C) rudimentary.. allowed

    (D) minute.. discussed

    (E) entertaining.. stylized

    2. The results of the experiments performed by Elizabeth Hazen and Rachel Brown were----not only because these results challenged old assumptions but also because they called the---- methodology into question.

    (A) provocative.. prevailing

    (B) predictable.. contemporary

    (C) inconclusive.. traditional

    (D) intriguing.. projected

    (E) specious.. original

    3. Despite the----of many of their colleagues, some scholars have begun to emphasize "pop culture" as a key for----the myths, hopes, and fears of contemporary society.

    (A) antipathy.. entangling

    (B) discernment.. evaluating

    (C) pedantry.. reinstating

    (D) skepticism.. deciphering

    (E) enthusiasm.. symbolizing

    4. In the seventeenth century, direct flouting of a generally accepted system of values was regarded as----, even as a sign of madness.

    (A) adventurous  (B) frivolous

    (C) willful (D) impermissible   (E) irrational

    5. Queen Elizabeth I has quite correctly been called a ----of the arts, because many young artists received her patronage.

    (A) connoisseur    (B) critic   (C) friend

    (D) scourge     (E) judge

    6. Because outlaws were denied----under medi- eval law, anyone could raise a hand against them with legal----.

    (A) propriety.. authority

    (B) protection.. impunity

    (C) collusion.. consent

    (D) rights.. collaboration

    (E) provisions.. validity

    7. Rather than enhancing a country's security, the successful development of nuclear weapons could serve at first to increase that country's


    (A) boldness  (B) influence

    (C) responsibility    (D) moderation

    (E) vulnerability

    8. WATER: SWIM::

    (A) grass: grow       (B) knot: tie

    (C) plan: implement   (D) flood: damage

    (E) snow: ski

    9. TILE: MOSAIC::

    (A) wood: totem  (B) stitch: sampler

    (C) ink: scroll   (D) pedestal: column

    (E) tapestry: rug

    10. SCHOOL: FISH::

    (A) posse: crowd    (B) arrow: feathers

    (C) union: labor  (D) flock: birds

    (E) stock: cattle


    (A) grief: indignation (B) hostility: intention

    (C) hope: insight  (D) innocence: patience

    (E) blasphemy: irreverence


    (A) tart: pungency (B) tacit: solitude

    (C) despicable: contempt

    (D) engrossing: obliviousness

    (E) venerable: renown


    (A) assess: value  (B) elaborate: quality

    (C) disperse: strength (D) prolong: duration

    (E) enumerate: quantity

    14. COMPLAIN: CARP::

    (A) supply: donate (B) argue: debate

    (C) grumble: accuse (D) drink: guzzle

    (E) pacify: intervene

    15. FILIGREE: WIRE::

    (A) embroidery: knot (B) bead: string

    (C) lace: thread  (D) fringe: yarn

    (E) rope: strand


    (A) revolution: democracy

    (B) duel: formality (C) feud: impartiality

    (D) bout: sparring (E) crusade: remoteness

    Thomas Hardy's impulses as a writer, all of which he indulged in his novels, were numerous and divergent, and they did not always work together in harmony. Hardy was to some degree (5)interested in exploring his characters' psycholo- gies, though impelled less by curiosity than by sympathy. Occasionally he felt the impulse to comedy (in all its detached coldness) as well as the impulse to farce, but he was more often (10)inclined to see tragedy and record it. He was also inclined to literary realism in the several senses of that phrase. He wanted to describe ordinary human beings; he wanted to speculate on their dilemmas rationally (and, unfortu- (15)nately, even schematically); and he wanted to record precisely the material universe. Finally, he wanted to be more than a realist. He wanted to transcend what he considered to be the banality of solely recording things exactly and (20)to express as well his awareness of the occult and the strange.

    In his novels these various impulses were sacrificed to each other inevitably and often. Inevitably, because Hardy did not care in the (25)way that novelists such as Flaubert or James cared, and therefore took paths of least resistance. Thus, one impulse often surrendered to a fresher one and, unfortunately, instead of exacting a compromise, simply disappeared. (30)A desire to throw over reality a light that never was might give way abruptly to the desire on the part of what we might consider a novelist- scientist to record exactly and concretely the structure and texture of a flower. In this (35)instance, the new impulse was at least an energetic one, and thus its indulgence did not result in a relaxed style. But on other occasions Hardy abandoned a perilous, risky, and highly energizing impulse in favor of what was for him (40)the fatally relaxing impulse to classify and schematize abstractly. When a relaxing impulse was indulged, the style-that sure index of an author's literary worth-was certain to become verbose. Hardy's weakness derived from his (45)apparent inability to control the comings and goings of these divergent impulses and from his unwillingness to cultivate and sustain the energetic and risky ones. He submitted to first one and then another, and the spirit blew where (50)it listed; hence the unevenness of any one of his novels. His most controlled novel, Under the Greenwood Tree, prominently exhibits two different but reconcilable impulses-a desire to be a realist-historian and a desire to be a (55)psychologist of love-but the slight interlock- ings of plot are not enough to bind the two completely together. Thus even this book splits into two distinct parts.

    17. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content?

    (A) Under the Greenwood Tree: Hardy's Ambiguous Triumph

    (B) The Real and the Strange: The Novelist's Shifting Realms

    (C) Energy Versus Repose: The Role of: Ordinary People in Hardy's Fiction

    (D)Hardy's Novelistic Impulses: The Problem of Control

    (E) Divergent Impulses: The Issue of Unity in the Novel

    18. The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about literary realism?

    (A) Literary realism is most concerned with the exploration of the internal lives of ordinary human beings.

    (B) The term "literary realism" is susceptible to more than a single definition.

    (C) Literary realism and an interest in psychology are likely to be at odds in a novelist's work.

    (D) "Literary realism" is the term most often used by critics in describing the method of Hardy's novels.

    (E) A propensity toward literary realism is a less interesting novelistic impulse than is an interest in the occult and the strange.

    19. The author of the passage considers a writer's style to be

    (A) a reliable means by which to measure the writer's literary merit

    (B) most apparent in those parts of the writer's work that are not realistic

    (C) problematic when the writer attempts to follow perilous or risky impulses

    (D) shaped primarily by the writer's desire to classify and schematize

    (E) the most accurate index of the writer's literary reputation

    20. Which of the following words could best be substituted for "relaxed" (line37) without substantially changing the author's meaning?

    (A) informal (B) confined (C) risky

    (D) wordy  (E) metaphoric

    21. The passage supplies information to suggest that its author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the novelists Flaubert and James?

    (A) They indulged more impulses in their novels than did Hardy in his novels.

    (B) They have elicited a greater degree of favorable response from most literary critics than has Hardy.

    (C) In the writing of their novels, they often took pains to effect a compromise among their various novelistic impulses.

    (D) Regarding novelistic construction, they cared more about the opinions of other novelists than about the opinions of ordinary readers.

    (E) They wrote novels in which the impulse toward realism and the impulse away from realism were evident in equal measure.

    22. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of lines 27 to 41 of the passage ("Thus…abstractly")?

    (A) The author makes a disapproving observation and then presents two cases, one of which leads to a qualification of his disapproval and the other of which does not.

    (B) The author draws a conclusion from a previous statement, explains his conclusion in detail, and then gives a series of examples that have the effect of resolving an inconsistency.

    (C) The author concedes a point and then makes a counterargument, using an extended comparison and contrast that qualifies his original concession.

    (D)The author makes a judgment, points out an exception to his judgment, and then contradicts his original assertion.

    (E) The author summarizes and explains an argument and then advances a brief history of opposing arguments.

    23. Which of the following statements about the use of comedy in Hardy's novels is best supported by the passage?

    (A) Hardy's use of comedy in his novels tended to weaken his literary style.

    (B) Hardy's use of comedy in his novels was inspired by his natural sympathy.

    (C) Comedy appeared less frequently in Hardy's novels than did tragedy.

    (D) Comedy played an important role in Hardy's novels though that comedy was usually in the form of farce.

    (E) Comedy played a secondary role in Hardy's more controlled novels only.

    24. The author implies which of the following about Under the Greenwood Tree in relation to Hardy's other novels?

    (A) It is Hardy's most thorough investigation of the psychology of love.

    (B) Although it is his most controlled novel, it does not exhibit any harsh or risky impulses.

    (C) It, more than his other novels, reveals Hardy as a realist interested in the history of ordinary human beings.

    (D) In it Hardy's novelistic impulses are managed somewhat better than in his other novels.

    (E) Its plot, like the plots of all of Hardy's other novels, splits into two distinct parts.

    Upwards of a billion stars in our galaxy have burnt up their internal energy sources, and so can no longer produce the heat a star needs to oppose the inward force of gravity. These stars, of more than a few solar masses, evolve, in general, much more rapidly than does a star like the Sun. Moreover, it is just these more massive stars whose collapse does not halt at intermediate stages (that is, as white dwarfs or neutron stars). Instead, the collapse continues until a singularity (an infinitely dense concentration of matter) is reached.

    It would be wonderful to observe a singularity and obtain direct evidence of the undoubtedly bizarre phenomena that occur near one. Unfortunately in most cases a distant observer cannot see the singu- larity; outgoing light rays are dragged back by gravity so forcefully that even if they could start out within a few kilometers of the singularity, they would end up in the singularity itself.

    25. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to

    (A) describe the formation and nature of singularities

    (B) explain why large numbers of stars become singularities

    (C) compare the characteristics of singularities with those of stars

    (C) explain what happens during the stages of a singularity's formation

    (D) imply that singularities could be more easily studied if observers could get closer to them

    26. The passage suggests which of the following about the Sun?

    I. The Sun could evolve to a stage of col- lapse that is less dense than a singularity.

    II. In the Sun, the inward force of gravity is balanced by the generation of heat.

    III. The Sun emits more observable light than does a white dwarf or a neutron star.

    (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only

    (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III

    27. Which of the following sentences would most probably follow the last sentence of the passage?

    (A) Thus, a physicist interested in studying phenomena near singularities would necessarily hope to find a singularity with a measurable gravitational field.

    (B) Accordingly, physicists to date have been unable to observe directly any singularity.

    (C) It is specifically this startling phenomenon that has allowed us to codify the scant information currently available about singularities.

    (D) Moreover, the existence of this extra- ordinary phenomenon is implied in the extensive reports of several physicists.

    (E) Although unanticipated, phenomena such as these are consistent with the structure of a singularity.

    28. STABILIZE:

    (A) penetrate (B) minimize  (C) fluctuate

    (D) analyze  (E) isolate

    29. RENOVATE:

    (A) design to specifications

    (B) keep hidden  (C) cause to decay

    (D) duplicate   (E) complicate

    30. PROFUSE:

    (A) sequential  (B) shoddy (C) scant

    (D) surly   (E) supreme

    31. ANCHOR:

    (A) unwind  (B) unbend (C) disjoin

    (D) disrupt  (E) dislodge

    32. REFUTE:

    (A) reveal  (B) associate

    (C) recognize (D) understand  (E) prove

    33. NADIR:

    (A) immobile object

    (B) uniform measurement

    (C) extreme distance (D) topmost point

    (E) regular phenomenon


    (A) disinclination  (B) stagnation

    (C) condemnation (D) false allegation

    (E) immediate repulsion


    (A) sensibleness  (B) courage

    (C) obedience  (D) aloofness

    (E) forcefulness

    36. TIMOROUS:

    (A) consummate  (B) faithful

    (C) intrepid   (D) antagonistic

    (E) impulsive

    37. SEMINAL:

    (A) withholding peripheral information

    (B) promoting spirited exchange

    (C) suggesting contradictory hypotheses

    (D) displaying cultural biases

    (E) hampering further development


    (A) coherent thought   (B) polite conversation

    (C) acquisitiveness (D) guilelessness

    (E) contentiousness

    No4-1  SECTION 6

    Questions 1-4

    Six products-U, V, W, X, Y, and Z-are to be placed in the display window of a vending machine with six compartments, numbered 1 through 6 from left to right. The products must be placed in the win- dow, one product in each compartment, according to the following conditions:

    U cannot be immediately to the left or immedi- ately to the right of V.

    W must be immediately to the left of X.

    Z cannot be in compartment 6.

    1. Which of the following products CANNOT be placed in compartment 1?

    (A) U  (B) V    (C) W (D) X (E) Z

    2. If X is placed in compartment 3, W must be placed in compartment

    (A) 1  (B) 2  (C) 4  (D) 5    (E) 6

    3. If U is placed in compartment 5, which of the following products must be placed in compart- ment 6?

    (A) V  (B) W  (C) X  (D) Y  (E) Z

    4. If Z is placed in compartment 3, immediately to the right of X, which of the following pro- ducts must be placed in compartment 5?

    (A) U    (B) V    (C) W  (D) X (E) Y

    5. Athletic director: "Members of our sports teams included, for the fall season, 80 football players and 40 cross-country runners; for the winter season, 20 wrestlers and 40 swimmers; for the spring season, 50 track-team members and 20 lacrosse players. Each team athlete partici- pates in his or her sport five days a week for the whole three-month season, and no athlete is on two teams during any one season. Therefore, adding these figures, we find that our team sports program serves 250 different individual athletes."

    In drawing the conclusion above, the athletic director fails to consider the relevant possibility that

    (A) athletes can be on more than one team in a single season

    (B) athletes can be on teams in more than one season

    (C) some of the team sports require a larger number of athletes on the team than do others

    (D) more athletes participate in team sports during one season than during another

    (E) an athlete might not participate in every one of the practice sessions and athletic contests in his or her sport

    6. As soon as any part of a person's conduct affects prejudicially the interests of others, society has jurisdiction over it, and the question of whether the general welfare will or will not be promoted by interfering with it becomes open to discus- sion. If a person's conduct does not affect prej- udicially the interests of others, it should not come under the jurisdiction of society in the first place.

    The author in the passage above argues that

    (A) society is independent of the actions of individuals

    (B) the general welfare of a society is pro- moted when a person's conduct benefits others

    (C) conduct that does not infringe on the interests of others should not be under the jurisdiction of society

    (D) interference with the actions of individuals does not enhance the general welfare

    (E) in general, the interests of persons are mutually exclusive

    7. Therapists find that treatment of those people who seek help because they are unable to stop smoking or overeating is rarely successful. From these experiences, therapists have concluded that such habits are intractable, and success in breaking them is rare. As surveys show, millions of people have dropped the habit of smoking, and many people have successfully managed a substantial weight loss.

    If all of the statements above are correct, an explanation of their apparent contradiction is provided by the hypothesis that

    (A) there have been some successes in therapy, and those successes were counted in the surveys

    (B) it is easier to stop smoking that it is to stop overeating

    (C) it is easy to break the habits of smoking and overeating by exercising willpower

    (D) the group of people selected for the survey did not include those who failed to break their habits even after therapy

    (E) those who succeed in curing themselves do not go for treatment and so are not included in the therapists' data

    Questions 8-11

    Seven people-Tomas, Nadine, Pavel, Marta, Rachel, Fred, and Kurt-are planning to travel down a river on two rafts. The group will be assigned to the rafts according to the following conditions:

    Tomas must be assigned to the same raft as Rachel.

    Fred cannot be on the same raft as Pavel unless Marta is also on that raft.

    The maximum number of persons on each raft is four.

    Neither Nadine nor Pavel can be assigned to the same raft as Kurt.

    8. If Fred is assigned to the same raft as Nadine, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Kurt is assigned to the other raft.

    (B) Marta is assigned to the other raft.

    (C) Pavel is assigned to the other raft.

    (D) Rachel is assigned to the same raft as Fred and Nadine

    (E) Tomas is assigned to the same raft as Fred and Nadine.

    9. If Rachel is assigned to the same raft as Pavel, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Kurt is assigned to the same raft as Rachel and Pavel.

    (B) Nadine is assigned to the same raft as Kurt.

    (C) Nadine is assigned to the raft other than the one to which Pavel is assigned.

    (D) Rachel and Pavel are assigned to the raft carrying four people.

    (E) Tomas is assigned to the raft other than the one to which Pavel is assigned.

    10. If Kurt is assigned to the same raft as Marta, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Fred is assigned to the same raft as Nadine.

    (B) Fred is assigned to the same raft as Tomas.

    (C) Nadine is assigned to the same raft as Pavel.

    (D) Nadine is assigned to the same raft as Kurt and Marta.

    (E) Rachel is assigned to the same raft as Kurt and Marta.

    11. If Rachel is assigned to the same raft as Fred, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the people who must then be assigned to the other raft?

    (A) Fred, Pavel  (B) Kurt, Tomas

    (C) Marta, Tomas (D) Kurt, Marta, Nadine

    (E) Marta, Nadine, Pavel

    Questions 12-15

    Central Bank is open from Monday through Friday each week. Each day that the bank is open, one bank officer is assigned as AM loan officer and a different bank officer is assigned as PM loan officer. The bank has five officers-Reynolds, Short, Torrez, Underwood, and Vance. The assignment of loan officers is always made in accordance with the following conditions:

    Each officer must be assigned as loan officer at least once each week. An officer is never assigned as a loan officer consecutive days in the same week. Torrez is never assigned as the AM loan officer. Vance is always assigned as the PM loan officer on Monday and Wednesday, and has no other assignments. Underwood is never assigned to be a loan officer on the same day that Short is assigned to be a loan officer.

    12. Which of the following is an acceptable assignment of loan officers for a single week?

    Monday  Tuesday  Wednesday  Thursday   Friday

    (A) AM Underwood   Short  Reynolds   Torrez   Short PM  Vance  Torrez  Vance   Underwood  Torrez

    (B) AM  Short  Short  Reynolds   Torrez   Reynolds PM  Vance  Torrez  Vance   Short   Torrez

    (C) AM  Short  Torrez  Short   Reynolds   Short PM  Reynolds  Vance  Vance   Torrez     Underwood

    (D) AM  Underwood Short  Reynolds   Short   Reynolds PM  Vance  Torrez  Vance           Torrez     Underwood

    (E) AM      Underwood  Torrez  Underwood  Reynolds     Underwood PM  Vance  Reynolds  Short            Torrez   Vance

    13. What is the maximum number of times that Torrez could be assigned as loan officer in a single week?

    (A) 1  (B) 2  (C) 3  (D) 4  (E) 5

    14. In a week in which Underwood is assigned as PM loan officer on Tuesday, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Underwood is assigned as the PM loan officer on Thursday.

    (B) Reynolds is assigned as the AM loan officer on Friday.

    (C) Reynolds is assigned as the AM loan officer on Tuesday.

    (D) Short is assigned as the AM loan officer on Thursday.

    (E) Underwood is assigned as the AM loan officer on Friday.

    15. In a week in which Torrez' only assignment as a loan officer is on Friday, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Reynolds is assigned as a loan officer on Tuesday.

    (B) Reynolds is assigned as a loan officer on Wednesday.

    (C) Reynolds is assigned as a loan officer on Friday.

    (D) Underwood is assigned as a loan officer on Thursday.

    (E) Underwood is assigned as a loan officer on Friday.

    Questions 16-22

    Five patients-L, M, N, O, and P-must be scheduled to undergo physical therapy treatments within a seven-day period beginning on the first day of a month and ending on the seventh day of the same month. Exactly one patient can be treated per day. The schedule must accommodate the following conditions:

    L is to receive exactly two treatments; the second treatment must be scheduled for the fourth day after the day of the first treatment.

    M is to receive exactly one treatment.

    N is to receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for either the day before or the day after the day of L's first treatment.

    O is to receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for a day anytime before the day of L's second treatment.

    P is to receive exactly one treatment, which must be scheduled for the third day after the day of M's treatment.

    16. Any of the five patients could be scheduled for the first day of the month EXCEPT

    (A) L (B) M  (C) N  (D) O  (E) P

    17. Which of the following is a possible schedule, including the open day for which no patient is scheduled, from the first day through the seventh day of the month?

    (A) L, M, N, O, L, P, open day

    (B) M, L, N, P, open day, L, O

    (C) N, L, M, O, P, L, open day

    (D) N, L, O, M, open day, L, P

    (E) Open day, L, M, O, L, N, P

    18. The day of M's treatment must be no more than how many days after L's first treatment?

    (A) 1 (B) 2  (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

    19. N could be scheduled for any of the following days EXCEPT the

    (A) first (B) second (C) third

    (D) fourth (E) fifth

    20. If M is to be scheduled for the first day of the month, which of the following pairs of patients CANNOT be scheduled for consecutive days?

    (A) L and P  (B) M and L    (C) M and N

    (D) N and O  (E) N and P

    21. If no patient is to be scheduled for the first of the month, which of the following could be true?

    (A) M is scheduled for the day before the day of L's first treatment.

    (B) N is scheduled for the day before the day of L's first treatment.

    (C) O is scheduled for the day before the day of L's first treatment.

    (D) P is scheduled for the day before the day of L's second treatment.

    (E) P is scheduled for the day after the day of O's treatment.

    22. If N is scheduled for the day before the day of L's first treatment, the days for which M's treatment can be scheduled include the

    (A) first day and second day

    (B) first day and fourth day

    (C) second day and third day

    (D) second day and fourth day

    (E) third day and fourth day

    23. The Supreme Court is no longer able to keep pace with the tremendous number of cases it agrees to decide. The Court schedules and hears 160 hours of oral argument each year, and 108 hours of next year's term will be taken up by cases left over from this year. Certainly the Court cannot be asked to increase its al- ready burdensome hours. The most reasonable long-range solution to this problem is to allow the Court to decide many cases without hearing oral argument; in this way the Court might eventually increase dramatically the number of cases it decides each year.

    Which of the following, if true, could best be used to argue against the feasibility of the solution suggested above?

    (A) The time the Court spends hearing oral argument is only a small part of the total time it spends deciding a case.

    (B) The Court cannot legitimately avoid hearing oral argument in any case left over from last year.

    (C) Most authorities agree that 160 hours of oral argument is the maximum number that the Court can handle per year.

    (D) Even now the Court decides a small number of cases without hearing oral argument.

    (E) In many cases, the delay of a hearing for a full year can be extremely expensive to the parties involved.

    24. That social institutions influence the formation of character has become a generally accepted proposition. This doctrine views individuals as but compliant recipients of social influence: personalities are entirely the products of society, and at any point in life an individual's person- ality can be changed by management of the social world. Crime is said to exist only because society has in some ways failed in its responsibility to give every person the resources to lead a productive life. However, whereas it is true that extreme poverty forces some people to steal, it is obvious that some persons will commit crimes no matter how well society treats them.

    Which of the following is implied by the "doctrine" (line 3) described in the passage above?

    (A) Social institutions may reflect personality as much as they shape it.

    (B) Social influence on personality is most strongly felt by the affluent.

    (C) The concentration of wealth in the hands of a privileged few accounts for the existence of crime.

    (D) Bringing about social reform is the most likely means of curtailing crime.

    (E) Less severe punishment of crime would be likely to result in more crime.

    25. The sense of delayed gratification, of working now for later pleasure, has helped shape the economic behavior of our society. However, that sense is no longer nurtured as consistently in our children as it once was. For example, it used to take a bit of patience to put together toys that children got in cereal boxes; now the toys come from the boxes whole.

    Which of the following is an assumption of the passage above?

    (A) The toys in cereal boxes have changed partly because the economic conditions of our society have improved.

    (B) The influence of promotion gimmicks on the economic behavior of our society has increased over the years.

    (C) The toys that used to come in cereal boxes were put together by the same children who played with them.

    (D) Part of the pleasure of any toy lies in putting the toy together before playing with it.

    (E) Today's children do not expect a single toy to provide pleasure for a long period of time.

相关热词:GRE 考试 试题




  1、凡本网注明 “来源:外语教育网”的所有作品,版权均属外语教育网所有,未经本网授权不得转载、链接、转贴或以其他方式使用;已经本网授权的,应在授权范围内使用,且必须注明“来源:外语教育网”。违反上述声明者,本网将追究其法律责任。