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GRE北美试题15

2006-01-23 00:00

    No.3-2 section 1

    1. There are simply no ---- for buying stock in certain industries since rapidly changing envi- ronmental restrictions will make a profitable return on any investment very unlikely.

    (A) incentives

    (B) arrangements

    (C) explanations

    (D) conditions

    (E) procedures

    2. He was widely regarded as a ---- man because he revealed daily his distrust of human nature and human motives.

    (A) disrespectful

    (B) cynical

    (C) confused

    (D) misinformed

    (E) fanatical

    3. Suspicious of too powerful a President, Americans nonetheless are ---- when a President does not act decisively.

    (A) unified

    (B) indifferent

    (C) content

    (D) uneasy

    (E) adamant

    4. For those Puritans who believed that ---- obligations were imposed by divine will, the correct course of action was not withdrawal from the world but conscientious ---- of the duties of business.

    (A) practical.. mystification

    (B) inherent.. manipulation

    (C) secular.. discharge

    (D) earthly.. disavowal

    (E) trying.. moderation

    5. Many philosophers agree that the verbal aggress- ion of profanity in certain radical newspapers is not ---- or childish, but an assault on ---- essential to the revolutionaries purpose.

    (A) belligerent.. fallibility

    (B) serious.. propriety

    (C) insolent.. sociability

    (D) deliberate.. affectation

    (E) trivial.. decorum

    6. Plants store a ---- of water in their leaves, stems, or understock to provide themselves with a form of ---- that will carry them through the inevitable drought they must suffer in the wild.

    (A) supply.. tolerance

    (B) hoard.. insurance

    (C) reservoir.. accommodation

    (D) provision.. restoration

    (E) contribution.. support

    7. Although ---- in her own responses to the plays she reviewed, the theatre critic was, paradoxically, ---- those who would deny that a reviewer must have a single method of interpretation.

    (A) dogmatic.. impatient with

    (B) eclectic.. suspicious of

    (C) partisan.. hostile toward

    (D) capricious.. intrigued by

    (E) indulgent.. indebted by

    8. ANESTHETIC: NUMBNESS::

    (A) meditation: happiness

    (B) antibiotic: illness

    (C) food: hunger

    (D) fear: alertness

    (E) intoxicant: drunkenness

    9. DRUMMER: MUSICIAN:

    (A) tragedian: actor

    (B) prop: stage

    (C) comedienne: audience

    (D) camera: movie

    (E) hero: drama

    10. ARCHIVE: MANUSCRIPT::

    (A) jail: custodian

    (B) school: principal

    (C) courtyard: fountain

    (D) arsenal: weapon

    (E) treasury: vault

    11. RAMPART: INVASION::

    (A) cellar: tornado

    (B) tinder: fire

    (C) plough: snowdrift

    (D) levee: flood

    (E) ration: drought

    12. RETICENT: TALK:

    (A) bland: savor

    (B) probable: guess

    (C) cranky: whine

    (D) contumacious: rebel

    (E) abstemious: gorge

    13. MENTOR: GUIDANCE::

    (A) oracle: prophecy

    (B) pundit: diplomacy

    (C) sage: criticism

    (D) prodigy: youth

    (E) scholar: wisdom

    14. LIGEOUS:WOOD::

    (A) osseous: bone

    (B) igneous: rock

    (C) cellular: microbe

    (D) fossilized: plant

    (E) nautical: water

    15. IRREVOCABLE: REPEAL::

    (A) uncharted: survey

    (B) unwieldy: lift

    (C) inscrutable: mention

    (D) immutable: anchor

    (E) ineluctable: avoid

    16. LITERATE: ERUDITE::

    (A) garrulous: loquacious

    (B) abstruse: recondite

    (C) prosaic: subtle

    (D) sober: informed

    (E) agitated: frenetic

    The making of classifications by literary historians can be a somewhat risky enterprise. When Black poets are discussed separately as a group, for instance, the extent to which their (5)  work reflects the development of poetry in general should not be forgotten, or a distortion of literary history may result. This caution is particularly relevant in an assessment of the differences between Black poets at the turn of (10) the century (1900-1909) and those of the gener- ation of the 1920's. These differences include the bolder and more forthright speech of the later generation and its technical inventiveness. It should be remembered, though, that comparable (15) differences also existed for similar generations of White poets.

    When poets of the 1910's and 1920's are considered together, however, the distinctions that literary historians might make between (20) "conservative" and "experimental' would be of little significance in a discussion of Black poets, although these remain helpful classifications for White poets of these decades. Certainly differ- ences can be noted between "conservative" (25) Black poets such as Countee Cullen and Claude McKay and "experimental" one such as Jean Loomer and Langston Hughes. But Black poets were not battling over old or new styles; rather, one accomplished Black poet was ready to (30) welcome another, whatever his her style, for what mattered was racial pride.

    However, in the 1920's Black poets did debate whether they should deal with specif- ically racial subjects. They asked whether they (35) should only write about Black experience for a Black audience or whether such demands were restrictive. It may be said, though, that virtually all these poets wrote their best poems when they spoke out of racial feeling, race being, as James (40) Weldon Johnson rightly put in. "perforce the thing the Negro poet knows best"

    At the turn of the century, by contrast, most Black poets generally wrote in the conventional manner of the age and expressed noble, if vague, (45) emotions in their poetry. These poets were not unusually gifted, though Boscoe Jamison and G, M, McClellen may be mentioned as excep- tions. They chose not to write in dialect, which, as Sterling Brown bas suggested, "meant a (50) rejection of stereotypes of Negro life," and they refused to write only about racial subjects. This refusal had both a positive and a negative conse- quence. As Brown observes, "Valuably insisting that Negro poets should not be confined to is- (55) sues of race, these poets committed [an] error…

    they refused to look into their hearts and write." These are important insights, but one must stress that this refusal to look within was also typical of most White poets of the United States (60) at the time. They, too often turned from their own experience and consequently produced not very memorable poems about vague topics, such as the peace of nature.

    17. According to the passage, most turn-of-the- century Black poets generally did which of the following?

    (A) Wrote in ways that did not challenge accepted literary practice.

    (B) Described scenes from their own lives.

    (C) Aroused patriotic feelings by expressing devotion to the land.

    (D) Expressed complex feeling in the words of ordinary people.

    (E) Interpreted the frustrations of Blacks to an audience of Whites.

    18. According to the passage, an issue facing Black poets in the 1920's was whether they should

    (A) seek a consensus on new techniques of poetry

    (B) write exclusively about and for Blacks

    (C) withdraw their support from a repressive society

    (D) turn away from social questions to recollect the tranquillity of nature

    (E) identify themselves with an international movement of Black writers

    19. It can be inferred from the passage that classi- fying a poet as either conservative or experi- mental would be of "little significance" (line 21) when discussing Black poets of the 1910's and the 1920's because

    (A) these poets wrote in very similar styles

    (B) these poets all wrote about nature in the same way

    (C) these poets were fundamentally united by a sense of racial achievement despite differences in poetic style.

    (D) such a method of classification would fail to take account of the influence of general poetic practice

    (E) such a method of classification would be relevant only in a discussion of poet's separated in time by more than three decades

    20. The author quotes Sterling Brown in line 53-56 in order to

    (A) present an interpretation of some Black poets that contradicts the author's own assertion about their acceptance of various poetic styles

    (B) introduce a distinction between Black poets who used dialect and White poets who did not

    (C) disprove James Weldon Johnson's claim that race is what "the Negro poet knows best "

    (D) suggest what were the effects of some Black poets decision not to write only about racial subjects

    (E) prove that Black poets at the turn of the century wrote less conventionally than did their White counterparts

    21. It can be inferred from the passage that the author finds the work of the majority of the Black poets at the turn of the century to be

    (A) unexciting

    (B) calming

    (C) confusing

    (D) delightful

    (E) inspiring

    22. The author would be most likely to agree that poets tend to produce better poems when they

    (A) express a love of nature

    (B) declaim noble emotions

    (C) avoid technical questions about style'

    (D) emulate the best work of their predecessors

    (E) write from personal experience

    23. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward classification as a technique in literary history?

    (A) Enthusiastic

    (B) Indifferent

    (C) Wary

    (D) Derisive

    (E) Defensive

    The primary method previously used by paleontologists to estimate climatic changes that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles was the determination of 18O/16O ratios in calcar- (5) eous fossils. However, because this ratio is influenced by a number of factors, the absolute magnitude of the temperature difference be- tween Pleistocene glacial and interglacial cycles could not be unequivocally ascertained. For (10)example, both temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater affect the 18O/16O ratio. And. since both factors influence the ratio in the same direction, the contribution of each to the 18O/16O ratio cannot be determined. (15)   Fortunately, recent studies indicate that the racemization reaction of amino acids can be used to determine more accurately temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles. Only L-amino acids are usually found in the (20)proteins of living organisms, but over long periods of geological time these acids undergo racemization, producing D-amino acids, which are not found in proteins. This reaction depends on both time and temperature, thus, if one (25)variable is known, the reaction can be used to calculate the other.

    24. It can be inferred from the passage that deter- mination of the temperatures mentioned in line 17 through 18O/16O ratios and determination through racemization reactions both require which of the following?

    (A) Calcium deposits known to be from Pleistocene seas

    (B) Proteins containing both L-amino acids and D-amino acids

    (C) Glacial debris from both before and after the Pleistocene period

    (D) Fossil material from organisms living during the Pleistocene period

    (E) Proteins containing both amino acids and 18O

    25. The passage suggests that the 18O/ 16O/ ratio could be used more successfully as a means of measurement if scientists were able to

    (A) determine the 18O/ 16 O/ ratio in living animals as well as in fossil remains

    (B) locate a greater number of calcareous fossils from the Pleistocene glacial and interglacial cycles

    (C) locate the factors other than temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater that affect the 18O/16O/ ratio

    (D) arrive at more exact determinations of which amino acids are found in the proteins of living organisms

    (E) isolate the relative effects of temperature fluctuations and isotopic changes in seawater on 18O/16O/ ratios

    26. The information in the passage can be used to answer which of the following questions?

    Ⅰ Do temperature variations and isotopic changes in seawater cause the 18O/16O ratio to shift in the same direction?

    Ⅱ What are the methods used to determine the18 O/16O ratio?

    Ⅲ Is the study of raceminzation reactions useful in estimating climatic changes that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles if only one of the two important variables is known?

    (A) Ⅰonly

    (B) Ⅰand Ⅱ only

    (C) Ⅰand Ⅲ only

    (D) Ⅱand Ⅲ only

    (E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ

    27. According to the passage, before the recent experiments described in the passage were completed, scientists could

    (A) determine temperatures only for Pleistocene seas

    (B) determine temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles only by examining fossil remains

    (C) measure changes in temperatures that occurred during Pleistocene glacial cycles with only questionable accuracy

    (D) only partially identify factors tending to lower Pleistocene temperatures

    (E) accurately determine temperatures only for land masses affected by glaciation

    Directions: Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

    Since some of the questions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is best.

    28. VULNERABLE:

    (A) empty

    (B) sullen

    (C) modest

    (D) safe

    (E) severe

    29. DECREPIT:

    (A) popular

    (B) sturdy

    (C) sterile

    (D) partially complete

    (E) sketchily detailed

    30. BALM:

    (A) irritant

    (B) imperfection

    (C) dizzying sensation

    (D) burdensome task

    (E) extraordinary substance

    31. INSOLVENCY:

    (A) ability to pay one's debts

    (B) ability to sustain growth

    (C) concentration

    (D) coherence

    (E) compatibility

    32. HONE:

    (A) shorten

    (B) blunt

    (C) fuse

    (D) bend

    (E) delay

    33. SINUOUS:

    (A) vacant

    (B) direct

    (C) wet

    (D) round

    (E) numerous

    34. EVINCE:

    (A) perturb

    (B) incriminate

    (C) forbid

    (D) subjugate

    (E) conceal

    35. EPHEMERAL:

    (A) garish

    (B) harsh

    (C) enduring

    (D) grasping

    (E) stubborn

    36. INSALUBRITY:

    (A) neatness

    (B) sobriety

    (C) confidence

    (D) healthfulness

    (E) satisfaction

    37. TRUCULENCE:

    (A) benevolence

    (B) exigence

    (C) exuberance

    (D) protuberance

    (E) perseverance

    38. TURPITUDE:

    (A) probity

    (B) determinedness

    (C) pragmatism

    (D) animation

    (E) judiciousness

    section 2

    Questions 1-5

    There are six soccer teams-J, K, L, M, N, and O-in the Regional Soccer League. All six teams play each Saturday at 10 a.m. during the season. Each team must play each of the other teams once and only once during the season.

    Team J plays team M first and team O second.

    Team K plays team N first and team L third.

    Team L plays team O first.

    1. On the first Saturday, which of the following pairs of teams play each other?

    (A) J and K; L and O; M and N

    (B) J and K; L and N; M and O

    (C) J and L; K and N; M and O

    (D) J and M; K and L; N and O

    (E) J and M; K and N; L and O

    2. Which of the following teams must K play second?

    (A) J

    (B) L

    (C) M

    (D) N

    (E) O

    3. What is the total number of games that each team must play during the season?

    (A) 3

    (B) 4

    (C) 5

    (D) 6

    (E) 7

    4. If team M wins 5 games, which of the following must be true?

    (A) J loses 5 games.

    (B) J wins 4 games.

    (C) J wins its first game.

    (D) K wins 5 games.

    (E) K loses at least one game.

    5. The last set of games could be between teams

    (A) J and L; L and O; M and N

    (B) J and L; K and O; M and N

    (C) J and M; K and L; N and O

    (D) J and N; K and L; M and O

    (E) J and O; K and N; L and M

    6. Harry: If I am reading a good book, I become so absorbed that if someone calls me, I am not aware of it and hear nothing.

    James: If you are not able to hear anything, you could not know that anyone was calling you.

    James's: response shows that he makes which of the following assumptions?

    (A) When Harry is absorbed in reading a good book, nobody is calling him.

    (B) Harry cannot know someone has called him unless he heard that call.

    (C) When Harry is not absorbed in reading a good book, someone often calls him.

    (D) Harry is even more absorbed than he claims to be.

    (E) Harry reads good books and he is called, but not at the same time.

    Questions 7-8

    In a swampy area of South America, the highly poisonous coral snake and a much less venomous kind of snake both bear red, black, and white bands. Only 100 miles away, on drier ground, the local type of coral snake lacks the red bands. And there, the less poisonous species of snake lacks the red bands, too. The explanation is that, in both habitats, close imitation of the coral snake affords the less poisonous species a measure of protection it would not otherwise have.

    7. Which of the following is most likely to be a major assumption underlying the explanation in the passage above?

    (A) Coral snakes claim individual territories for themselves, which they defend against other snakes.

    (B) Red coloration is effective camouflage primarily in dry habitats, where natural reds are much more common than elsewhere.

    (C) The sight of a coral snake has a strange paralyzing effect on certain of its prey animals.

    (D) Predators whose diets include snakes tend to avoid those most poisonous and thus most dangerous to them.

    (E) Snakes of different species will peacefully coexist only if they do not compete for the same foods.

    8. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage above?

    (A) All varieties of coral snakes have red, black, and white bands.

    (B) The differentiation among coral snakes into those with and those without red bands predates the corresponding differentiation among the less poisonous species of snake mentioned.

    (C) The less poisonous snake species mentioned produces the same venom that the coral snake does, but less of it.

    (D) Coral snakes from different habitats also have different types of venom.

    (E) The protection that the less poisonous species of snake mentioned derives from the coral snake means that the less poisonous species of snake must be useful to the coral snake in some way.

    Questions 9-15

    In a certain word game, an acceptable sequence of five words is one that meets all of the following rules;

    The five words in a sequence must be written down side by side on a single line.

    Each word must have at least five letters and, of the letters in a word, no more than two can be vowels (a, e, i, o, u).

    Words cannot begin with any of the following letters: i, p, and x

    The five words must be in alphabetical order from left to right with the added requirement that the initial letters of the five words must come immediately after each other in the alphabet.

    9. which of the following is an acceptable sequence of words for the game?

    (A) Aster, bread, dieter, enlisted, farther

    (B) Jester, kettle, label, mental, nerves

    (C) Nearer, opens, plate, quite, rowed

    (D) Plastic, quay, rooster, trailer, zephyr

    (E) Sugar, tailor, shore, voter, wash

    10. If the middle word in a sequence is "fright," then the initial letter of the first word and the initial letter of the last word of that sequence, respectively, must be

    (A) a, e

    (B) b, g

    (C) c, I

    (D) d, h

    (E) e, j

    11. The last word in a sequence CANNOT begin with the letter

    (A) e

    (B) o

    (C) s

    (D) u

    (E) w

    12. The first word in a sequence CANNOT begin with the letter

    (A) a

    (B) d

    (C) j

    (D) k

    (E) u

    13. With which of the following words could an acceptable sequence begin?

    (A) Gorge

    (B) Opposite

    (C) Quest

    (D) Trusted

    (E) Yellowing

    14. If "whale" is the last word in a sequence, the first word in that sequence could be.

    (A) sailor

    (B) salt

    (C) soil

    (D) suede

    (E) smart

    15. Each of the following can be the last word in a sequence EXCEPT

    (A) entry

    (B) horror

    (C) market

    (D) other

    (E) winter

    Questions 16-22

    Five adult acrobats-M, N, O, P, and Q-and five child acrobats-V, W, X, Y, and Z-form a human pyramid with four levels, as follows:

    There are four of the acrobats on the lowest or fist level; three on the next higher or second level; two on the level above that, the third; and one on the highest or fourth level.

    Except for the acrobats on the first level, who stand on the floor, each acrobat stands on the shoulders of two adjacent acrobats on the next lower level.

    Whenever any acrobat falls, the acrobats who are standing on either of that acrobat's shoulders must also fall.

    Child acrobats cannot be in the first level of the pyramid, nor can they occupy any position that requires the use of more than one shoulder to support, other acrobats.

    16. If X stands on V's shoulder, and M and W stand side by side on the same level as one another, which of the following is a possible arrangement for the second level?

    (A) V, M, W

    (B) V, W, M

    (C) X, M, W

    (D) Y, N, Z

    (E) Y, O, V

    17. If Q and W are standing on N's shoulders and M falls, which of the following sets of acrobats could be left standing after all the acrobats who must fall as a result of M's fall have fallen?

    (A) N, O, P, Q, V, and W

    (B) N, O, P, V, X, and Y

    (C) N, P, V, W, X, and Y

    (D) O, P, Q, V, X, and Y

    (E) O, P, Q, W, X, and Y

    18. If V and W stand on different levels, and X and Z stand on the same level, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the levels on which Y could possibly stand?

    (A) Second

    (B) Third

    (C) Fourth

    (D) Second, third

    (E) Third, fourth

    19. If V and W stand on O's shoulders, and M stands on the same level as N and P and is the only acrobat between them, which of the following must be true?

    (A) If M falls, all five of the child acrobats must fall.

    (B) If N falls, exactly four of the child acrobats must fall.

    (C) If O falls, exactly two of the child acrobats must fall.

    (D) If P falls, exactly three of the child acrobats must fall.

    (E) If Q falls, exactly three of the child acrobats must fall.

    20. If W stands on V's shoulder, and V stands on M's shoulder, which of the following CANNOT be true?

    (A) N and V stand side by side on the same level.

    (B) W and X stand side by side on the same level.

    (C) X and Y stand side by side on the same level.

    (D) M stands on the same level as N and P and is the only acrobat between them

    (E) M stands on the same level as Y and Z and is the only acrobat between them.

    21. If W stands on the shoulders of N and P, and X stands on the shoulders of M and V, which of the following must be true?

    (A) M stands of the same level as V and W and is the only acrobat between them.

    (B) N stands on the same level as P and Q and is the only acrobat between them.

    (C) O stands on the same level as P and Q and is the only acrobat between them.

    (D) P stands on the same level as M and V and is the only acrobat between them.

    (E) Q stands on the same level as N and O and is the only acrobat between them

    22. If N and Y stand on M's shoulders, and Z stands on the shoulders of p and O, which of the following must be standing side by side on the same level as one another?

    (A) M and O

    (B) M and P

    (C) N and Z

    (D) P and Q

    (E) W and X

    23. Only when the alarm is set off in the house will either the police or the fire department arrive there. In order for members of either department to get to the house, they must pass by the school. Only the police passed by the school yesterday, and neither department responded to alarms the day before yesterday.

    Which of the following can be properly inferred from the statements above?

    (A) The fire department did not arrive at the house yesterday.

    (B) The alarm was not set off at the house yesterday.

    (C) The police arrived at the house yesterday

    (D) The police passed by the school the day before yesterday.

    (E) The fire department failed to respond to the alarm that was set off yesterday.

    24. A study of twentieth-century data on volcanic eruptions shows a slow sustained rise in reported eruptions, with sharp drops that coincide with the two world wars. The most reasonable interpretation of these data is that volcanic activity in this century has held at a steady level throughout.

    Which of the following is most likely to be an assumption underlying the interpretation of the data described?

    (A) The slow rise in reported volcanic eruptions in the twentieth century can reasonably be expected to be sustained for the remainder of this century.

    (B) Volcanic eruptions constitute only a small percentage of the sum total of volcanic activity, but they tend to get recorded more faithfully than other volcanic activity.

    (C) The fact that the sharp drops in reports of volcanic eruptions occurred during the two wars is attributable to random fluctuations in the data.

    (D) The variations in the frequency of reports of volcanic eruptions can reasonably be attributed to factors impinging on the reporting activity itself.

    (E) Pre-twentieth-century data are too unsystematic to support any reasonably firm conclusions about long-term levels of volcanic activity

    25. To watch television with intelligence is a skill that has to be learned, just as the skill of reading a book has to be learned. Television, largely because of the illusions inherent in it as a visual medium that relics on both the strengths and weaknesses of the camera, plays tricks that one must learn to make allowance for if one is to recreate the reality of flesh and blood that these tricks distort.

    Which of the following is the major point made by the passage above?

    (A) It takes a skillful viewer to extract an authentic picture of the word and of the events in from the television images that present them both.

    (B) Knowing how to watch a television program intelligently is no less important a skill than knowing how to read a book.

    (C) The makers of television programs possess an arsenal of visual tricks with which they can dupe the unwary viewer.

    (D) Technological innovation in video cameras is frustrating in that it often makes available features for which there is no present need and often does not supply features that could be put to good use.

    (E) The skill of watching television intelligently is very much like the skill of reading a book in that each requires above all the ability to recognize illusions and distortions for what they are.

    section 4

    1. Faraday does not ---- any particular theory; she believes that each theory increases our understanding of some dreams but that no single theory can ---- them all.

    (A) endorse.. explain

    (B) discuss.. simplify

    (C) mention.. replace

    (D) evaluate.. identify

    (E) criticize.. eradicate

    2. Although his outnumbered troops fought bravely, the general felt he had no choice but to ---- defeat and ---- a retreat.

    (A) hasten.. suggest

    (B) seek.. try

    (C) oversee.. reject

    (D) overcome.. request

    (E) acknowledge.. order

    3. Despite some allowances for occupational mobility, the normal expectation of seventeenth- century English society was that the child's vocation would develop along familial lines;

  ---- the career of one's parents was therefore
  ----.

    (A) disagreement with .. forbidden

    (B) divergence from .. limited

    (C) preparation for .. difficult

    (D) reliance on .. unanticipated

    (E) assumption of .. premature

    4. The little-known but rapidly expanding use of computers in mapmaking is technologically similar to the more ---- uses in designing everything from bolts to satellites.

    (A) recent

    (B) impromptu

    (C) publicized

    (D) ingenuous

    (E) secure

    5. The impact of a recently published collection of essays, written during and about the last presidential campaign, is lessened by its timing; it comes too late to affect us with its ---- and too soon for us to read it out of historical----.

    (A) foresight.. anxiety

    (B) research .. consistency

    (C) assuredness.. skepticism

    (D) immediacy.. curiosity

    (E) veracity.. respect

    6. It would be misleading to use a published play to generalize about fifteenth-century drama: the very fact of publication should serve as a ---- of the play's ---- character.

    (A) qualification.. unusual

    (B) manifestation.. unsophisticated

    (C) restatement.. untraditional

    (D) warning.. unrepresentative

    (E) demonstration.. unliterary

    7. The Neoplatonists' conception of a deity, in which perfection was measured by abundant fecundity, was contradicted by that of the Aristotelians, in which perfection was displayed in the ---- of creation.

    (A) profusion

    (B) precision

    (C) variety

    (D) clarity

    (E) economy

    8. TUITION: INSTRUCTION::

    (A) salary: increment

    (B) fare: transportation

    (C) ransom: imprisonment

    (D) collateral: mortgage

    (E) stipend: charity

    9. ARBITRATOR: DISPUTANTS::

    (A) salesperson: clients

    (B) waiter: chefs

    (C) commander: adjutants

    (D) judge: litigants

    (E) artist: critics

    10. ARBORETUM: TREES::

    (A) zoo: range

    (B) greenhouse: garden

    (C) aviary: birds

    (D) grove: forest

    (E) museum: painters

    11. WINNOW: WHEAT::

    (A) refine: oil

    (B) burn: coal

    (C) grind: flour

    (D) bake: bread

    (E) mow: grass

    12. IDYLL: CAREFREE::

    (A) ordeal: difficult

    (B) lark: regrettable

    (C) interlude: nostalgic

    (D) trial: tragic

    (E) respite: spontaneous

    13. RELAPSE: CONVALESCENCE::

    (A) repetition: monotony

    (B) impasse: debate

    (C) dissonance: harmony

    (D) recidivism: rehabilitation

    (E) feudalism: industrialization

    14. ANACHRONISM: CHRONOLOGY::

    (A) fallacy: logic

    (B) tradition: custom

    (C) debauchery: appetites

    (D) archetype: paradigm

    (E) variations: incongruity

    15. DEFAULT: PAY::

    (A) evict: reside

    (B) slouch: stand

    (C) yield: resist

    (D) sue: convict

    (E) argue: win

    16. FIRM: INTRANSIGENT::

    (A) vague: inattentive

    (B) faithful: resolute

    (C) malleable: tractable

    (D) concerned: obsessed

    (E) improvident: industrious

    Chimps and children, gulls and Greeks-the ethnologists to their merry way, comparing bits of human cultural behavior with bits of genetically programmed animal behavior. True, humans are animals; they share certain anatomical features with other animals, and some items of human behavior may seem analogous to the behavior of other animal But such analogies can seriously mislead if we fail to look at the context of a particular item of behavior. Thus one ethnologist compares the presentation of a twig by a cormorant with gift-giving in humans. Yet the cormorant's twig-presentation simply inhibits attack and is comparable to other appeasement rituals found in many species. Human gift-giving differs in form and purpose not only from culture to culture. but within the same culture in various social contexts Everything significant about it derives from its social context. Thus, ethnologists can accomplish little- beyond reminding us that we are animals-until they study humans as cultural beings.

    17. The author is primarily concerned with

    (A) demonstrating the usefulness of ethnology in discovering the behavioral limits within which humans operate

    (B) objecting to the degradation of humanity implicit in the ethnologists' equation of humans and animals

    (C) pointing out the dangers inherent in com- paring highly dissimilar species, such as humans and cormorants, rather than similar ones, such as humans and apes

    (D) refuting the idea that the appeasement rituals in human cultural behavior can be profitably subjected to ethnological analysis

    (E) arguing that the ethologists' assumption that human behavior can be straight- forwardly compared with animal behavior is invalid

    18. The author believes that gift-giving in humans

    (A) is instinctive behavior

    (B) is analogous to appeasement rituals in other animals

    (C) is not an appropriate subject of study for ethologists

    (D) must be considered within its social context to be properly understood

    (E) may be a cultural remnant of behavior originally designed to inhibit attack

    19. The author's attitude toward contemporary ethologists can best be described as

    (A) puzzled

    (B) conciliatory

    (C) defensive

    (D) amused

    (E) disparaging

    20. Which of the following statements from a report on a cross-cultural study of gift-giving would, if true, most strongly support the author's assertions concerning human gift-giving?

    (A) In every culture studied, it was found that some forms of gift-giving are acts of aggression that place the receiver under obligation to the giver.

    (B) Most governmental taxation systems differentiate between gifts of property given to children during a parent's lifetime, and a child's inheritance of the same property from a parent dying without a will.

    (C) Some gift-giving customs have analogous forms in nearly every culture, as in the almost universal custom of welcoming strangers with gifts of food.

    (D) In North America, generally speaking, money is an acceptable holiday gift to one's letter carrier or garbage collector, but is often considered an insult if given to one's employer, friends, or relatives.

    (E) Some gifts, being conciliatory in nature, indicate by their costliness the degree of hostility they must appease in the recipient.

    Few areas of neurobehavioral research seemed more promising in the early sixties than that investigating the relationship between pro- tein synthesis and learning. The conceptual framework for this research was derived directly from molecular biology, which had shown that genetic information is stored in nucleic acids and expressed in proteins. Why not acquired information as well?

    The first step toward establishing a connec- tion between protein synthesis and learning seemed to be to block memory (cause amnesia) by interrupting the production of proteins. We were fortunate in finding a nonlethal dosage of puromycin that could, it first appeared, thor- oughly inhibit brain protein synthesis as well as reliably produce amnesia.

    Before the actual connection between protein synthesis and learning could be established, however, we began to have doubts about whether inhibition of protein synthesis was in fact the method by which puromycin produced amnesia. First, other drugs, glutarimides- themselves potent protein-synthesis inhibitors- either failed to cause amnesia in some situations where it could easily be induced by puromycin or produced an amnesia with a different time course from that of puromycin. Second, puro- mycin was found to inhibit protein synthesis by breaking certain amino-acid chains, and the resulting fragments were suspected of being the actual cause of amnesia in some cases. Third, puromycin was reported to cause abnormalities in the brain, including seizures. Thus, not only were decreased protein synthesis and amnesia dissociated, but alternative mechanisms for the amnestic action of puromycin were readily suggested

    So, puromycin turned out of be a disap- pointment. It came to be regarded as a poor agent for amnesia studies, although, of course, it was poor only in the context of our original paradigm of protein-synthesis inhibition. In our frustration, our initial response was simply to change drugs rather than cur conceptual orien- tation. After many such disappointments, however, it now appears unlikely that we will make a firm connection between protein synthesis and learning merely by pursuing the approaches of the past. Our experience with drugs has shown that all the amnestic agents often interfere with memory in ways that seem unrelated to their inhibition of protein synthesis More importantly, the notion that the inter- ruption or intensification of protein production in the brain can be related in cause-and-effect fashion to learning now seems simplistic and unproductive. Remove the battery from a car and the car will not go. Drive the car a long distance at high speed and the battery will become more highly charged. Neither of these facts proves that the battery powers the car only a knowledge of the overall automotive system will reveal its mechanism of locomotion and the role of the battery within that system.

    21. This passage was most likely excerpted from

    (A) a diary kept by a practicing neuro- behavioral researcher

    (B) a newspaper article on recent advances in the biochemistry of learning

    (C) a technical article on experimental techniques in the field of molecular biology

    (D) an article summarizing a series of scientific investigations in neurobehavioral research

    (E) a book review in a leading journal devoted to genetic research

    22. The primary purpose of the passage is to show that extensive experimentation has

    (A) demonstrated the importance of amino- acid fragmentation in the induction of amnesia

    (B) cast doubt on the value of puromycin in the neurobehavioral investigation of learning

    (C) revealed the importance of amnesia in the neurobehavioral study of learning

    (D) not yet demonstrated the applicability of molecular biology to neurobehavioral research

    (E) not supported the hypothesis that learning is directly dependent on protein synthesis

    23. According to the passage, neurobehaviorists initially based their that protein synthesis was related to learning on which of the following?

    (A) Traditional theories about learning

    (B) New techniques in protein synthesis

    (C) Previous discoveries in molecular biology

    (D) Specific research into learning and amnesia

    (E) Historic experiments on the effects of puromycin

    24. The passage mentions all of the following as effects of puromycin EXCEPT

    (A) brain seizures

    (B) memory loss

    (C) inhibition of protein synthesis

    (D) destruction of genetic information

    (E) fragmentation of amino-acid chains

    25. It can be inferred from the passage that, after puromycin was perceived to be a disappoint- ment, researchers did which of the following?

    (A) They ceased to experiment with puromycin, and shifted to other promising protein- synthesis inhibitors.

    (B) They ceased to experiment with puromycin, and reexamined through experiments the relationship between genetic information and acquired information.

    (C) They continued to experiment with puro- mycin, but applied their results to other facets of memory research.

    (D) They continued to experiment with puro- mycin, but also tried other protein- synthesis inhibitors.

    (E) They continued to experiment with puro- mycin until a new neuroanatomical framework was developed.

    26. In the example of the car (lines 58-65), the battery is meant to represent which of the following elements in the neurobehavioral research program?

    (A) Puromycin

    (B) Amnesia

    (C) Glutarimides

    (D) Protein synthesis

    (E) Acquired information

    27. Which of the following statements would be most likely to come alter the last sentence of the passage?

    (A) The failures of the past, however, must not impede further research into the amnestic action of protein-synthesis inhibitors.

    (B) It is a legacy of this research, therefore, that molecular biology's genetic models have led to disagreements among neuro- behaviorists.

    (C) The ambivalent status of current research, however, should not deter neurobe- haviorists from exploring the deeper connections between protein production and learning.

    (D) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to emphasize more strongly the place of their specific findings within the overall protein synthesis model of learning.

    (E) It is important in the future, therefore, for behavioral biochemists to focus on the several components of the total learning system.

    28. EXAGGERATE:

    (A) minimize

    (B) relate

    (C) disclose

    (D) delegate

    (E) condone

    29. INCARCERATE:

    (A) anticipate

    (B) liberate

    (C) summon

    (D) confide

    (E) assist

    30. CAUTIOUS:

    (A) restless

    (B) unwise

    (C) petulant

    (D) disastrous

    (E) rash

    31. VACILLATE:

    (A) turn on

    (B) pry open

    (C) walk fast

    (D) send away

    (E) stand firm

    32. ANALGESIA:

    (A) capability to change

    (B) sensitivity to pain

    (C) synthesis

    (D) recollection

    (E) difference

    33. VACUITY:

    (A) certainty

    (B) stability

    (C) incontinence

    (D) quality

    (E) plenitude

    34. INVECTIVE:

    (A) restoration

    (B) normality

    (C) fertility

    (D) willing compliance

    (E) laudatory words

    35. FASTIDIOUS:

    (A) detached

    (B) laconic

    (C) indiscriminate

    (D) sluggish

    (E) helpless

    36. UNTOWARD:

    (A) industrious

    (B) favorable

    (C) experienced

    (D) straightforward

    (E) inevitable

    37. BROOK:

    (A) refuse to tolerate

    (B) demolish

    (C) debate

    (D) detain

    (E) incite to act

    38. PILLORY:

    (A) foster

    (B) lament

    (C) forgive

    (D) enjoy

    (E) exalt

    section 5

    Questions 1-7

    Seven employees-J, K, M, N, O, and P-will be assigned to four offices-101, 102, 103, and 104, Two employees will be assigned to each of the first three offices-101, 102, and 103. One employee will be alone in 104.

    Neither J nor N will be assigned to an office with K.

    L will not be assigned to an office with M.

    If O is not assigned to an office with M, O is assigned to an office with P.

    1. Which of the following three pairs of employees can be assigned to the first three offices?

    (A) J and N, K and P, L and M

    (B) J and N, K and L, O and P

    (C) J and K, L and P, N and O

    (D) J and L, K and N, M and O

    (E) J and P, L and N, K and O

    2. If L is assigned to an office with P, which of the following must be true?

    (A) K is assigned to an office with M.

    (B) K is assigned to an office with N.

    (C) J is assigned to an office with M.

    (D) K is assigned to 104.

    (E) J is assigned to 104.

    3. If L is assigned to 104, which of the following must be assigned to an office with J?

    (A) K

    (B) M

    (C) N

    (D) O

    (E) P

    4. If J is assigned to an office with M, which of the following must be true?

    (A) K is assigned to 104.

    (B) L is assigned to 104.

    (C) N is assigned to 104.

    (D) L is assigned to an office with either K or N.

    (E) P is assigned to an office with either K or N.

    5. If K is assigned to an office with P, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the employees who could be assigned to 104?

    (A) J

    (B) L

    (C) J, L

    (D) L, N

    (E) J, L, N

    6. If P is assigned to an office with N, which of the following CANNOT be true?

    (A) O is assigned to an office with M.

    (B) K is assigned to an office with L.

    (C) J is assigned to 104.

    (D) K is assigned to 104.

    (E) L is assigned to 104.

    7. If P is assigned to 104, what is the total number of possible groupings of the employees into three pairs of officemates?

    (A) 1

    (B) 2

    (C) 3

    (D) 4

    (E) 5

    8. Classic scholarly works occupy a peculiar position. As cultural landmarks they seem imperishable, but the particular views expressed in them often are superseded by newer views, with the result that those classics survive as do ancient castles, venerable and imposing feature of the landscape, yet unsuited for habitation unless remodeled.

    The central point made by the passage above is that classic scholarly works

    (A) compel our respect and admiration even if their ideas are no longer current

    (B) impede the development of new ideas because they are unduly respected

    (C) should be preserved because scholarly opinion fluctuates and they will come into fashion again

    (D) lose their distinctive features with the passage of time

    (E) are ignored by the younger generation of scholars

    9. Forestry experts are beginning to question the policy of attempting to extinguish all forest fires instead of allowing them to run their course. Observations about the results of forest fires have indicated that their effects may be, in the long run, beneficial to the overall ecology of the forest.

    Which of the following could most logically be one of the "observations" referred to in the passage above?

    (A) More than half of all forest are the result of natural causes such as lightning rather than the result of human carelessness.

    (B) Most people are killed or seriously injured each year attempting to fight forest fires than would be killed or injured if the fires were allowed to burn themselves out.

    (C) Frequent small forest fires prevent the accumulation of highly flammable dead brushwood and timber, which can support massive, uncontrollable fires.

    (D) The animal and plant life destroyed by forest fires seldom represents endangered species.

    (E) Study of tree tissues indicates that forest fires were a regular occurrence in the times preceding human occupation of forest areas.

    10. The dinosaurs may have been destroyed when the Earth was struck by a huge meteorite whose impact threw a mass of pulverized meteorite debris into the atmosphere. This dust cut off sunlight, so depleting plant life that the plant-eating dinosaurs perished; the meat-eating dinosaurs, who preyed on the plant-eaters, then starved to death.

    Which of the following, if true, best supports the theory above?

    (A) Modern volcanic explosions have sent enough dust into the atmosphere to change the color of sunsets around the world for several years.

    (B) Meteorite craters are abundant in several areas of the Southwest where numerous dinosaur fossils have also been found.

    (C) Recent studies of bone structure suggest that dinosaurs were quite agile beasts rather than the ponderous, awkward animals they were once thought to be.

    (D) The Earth's sedimentary rock strata that were formed from atmospheric dust at the time the dinosaurs vanished contain minerals and other trace elements in proportions characteristic of meteorites.

    (E) Several meat-and plant-eating species of mammals that coexisted with the dinosaurs continue to exist today, although their appearance is considerably modified.

    Questions 11-15

    Wilson is a corporate officer who must take a trip to conduct surprise inspections of production operations at plants in various cities. On her trip she must visit at least three of the corporation's five plants, which are located in Atlanta, Boston, Chicago, Denver, and El Paso. Her trip must be planned according to the following restrictions:

    She can visit a city only once on the trip.

    She cannot visit both Atlanta and Chicago.

    Her first visit must be to Atlanta or Denver.

    Her last visit must be to Boston or Denver.

    If she visits both Boston and EI Paso, she must visit Boston before she visits EI Paso.

    11. Which of the following travel plans, each of which lists cities in the order in which Wilson would visit them, conforms to the restrictions imposed on her trip?

    (A) Atlanta, Denver, Boston

    (B) Chicago, Boston, EI Paso

    (C) Atlanta, EI Paso, Boston, Denver

    (D) Boston, EI Paso, Atlanta, Denver

    (E) Atlanta, Boston, Chicago, EI Paso, Denver

    12. Wilson must visit which of the following cities?

    (A) Atlanta

    (B) Boston

    (C) Chicago

    (D) Denver

    (E) EI Paso

    13. If Wilson visits Atlanta first, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the cities that she could visit second?

    (A) Boston

    (B) Denver

    (C) Boston, Denver

    (D) Denver, EI Paso

    (E) Boston, Denver, EI Paso

    14. If Wilson visits Chicago, which of the following statements must be true?

    Ⅰ. She visits Denver first.

    Ⅱ. She visits Chicago second.

    Ⅲ. She visits Boston last.

    (A) Ⅰonly

    (B) Ⅲonly

    (C) Ⅰand Ⅱonly

    (D) Ⅱand Ⅲ only

    (E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ

    15. Wilson's trip CANNOT include which of the following?

    (A) Visits to all of the five cities except Chicago

    (B) Visits to all of the five cities except Atlanta

    (C) A visit to Boston before a visit to Denver

    (D) A visit to Atlanta before a visit to EI Paso

    (E) A visit to Atlanta before a visit to Denver

    Questions 16-22

    In a first aid course, exactly five training films-R, S, T, U, and V-are to the shown. The films can be shown in any order that conforms to the following restrictions:

    R must be shown earlier than T.

    S must be shown earlier than U.

    V must not be shown fifth.

    16. Which of the following is an acceptable order for showing the training film?

    (A) R, T, S, U, V

    (B) R, T, U, V, S

    (C) S, U, T, R, V

    (D) S, U, V, R, T

    (E) V, S, T, R, U

    17. If T is shown earlier than V, which of the following must be true?

    (A) R is shown first.

    (B) S is shown second.

    (C) T is shown third.

    (D) U is shown fifth.

    (E) V is shown fourth.

    18. If U is to be shown earlier than R is shown, then for which of the following is there exactly one position from fist through fifth in which it can be scheduled to be shown?

    (A) R

    (B) S

    (C) T

    (D) U

    (E) V

    19. Which of the following is a pair of films that CANNOT both be shown earlier than V?

    (A) R and S

    (B) R and U

    (C) S and T

    (D) S and U

    (E) T and U

    20. If U and V are shown as far apart from each other as possible, which of the following must be true?

    (A) R is shown earlier than S.

    (B) S is shown earlier than T.

    (C) T is shown earlier than V.

    (D) U is shown earlier than R.

    (E) V is shown earlier than S.

    21. If S, U, and V are to be shown one directly after the other in the order given, the two positions from first to fifth in which R could possibly be shown are

    (A) first and second

    (B) first and fourth

    (C) second and third

    (D) third and fifth

    (E) fourth and fifth

    22. If exactly one film is shown between R and T, and exactly one film is shown between S and U, which of the following must be true?

    (A) S is the film shown between R and T.

    (B) T is the film shown between S and U.

    (C) V is the film shown between R and T.

    (D) U is the last film shown.

    (E) V is the first film shown.

    23. Jet fighters have recently been equipped with electronics improvements enabling the pilot to shoot down an enemy plane while still out of sight. There is, however, the following problem: there is no sure way of determining whether a plane that is out of sight is friend or foe.

    Which of the following products suffers from a drawback that, in its logical features, is most like the problem described above?

    (A) A fire alarm system with such a high heat and smoke threshold that it is likely to react too late to a developing fire

    (B) An improved electronic ignition system whose superiority is limited to those rare times when it is perfectly adjusted

    (C) A product marketed as a weedkiller that kills all plants to which it is applied before they resume active growth in the spring

    (D) A jar lid designed to be childproof that children have little difficulty removing

    (E) A cold medicine that relieves most symptoms of the common cold but also causes spells of dizziness

    24. As a tool for public health policy, the epidemiological study of disease has one major advantage over experiments studying the effects of toxic substances on animals: there is never any call for extrapolating inferences across species in epidemiology.

    Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?

    (A) In epidemiology, extrapolating inferences across species is only an auxiliary tool.

    (B) Epidemiology is a very precise science.

    (C) In epidemiology, human populations are studied directly.

    (D) Toxicological experimentation on animals is more expensive than are epidemiological studies.

    (E) Toxicological experimentation on animals yields results less quickly than do epidemiological studies.

    25. According to a recent historical study, capital punishment deters murder only during weeks when well-publicized executions take place. During such weeks, homicides fall to a level below average. The yearly murder rate, how- ever, is not affected by the number of well- publicized executions.

    If the above passage is true, which of the following statements must also the true?

    (A) In the period studied, the number of well- publicized executions remained virtually the same from year to year.

    (B) For at least one week during any years in which there were well-publicized executions, murder rates were above average.

    (C) During some weeks of each year of the study, an extraordinary number of public executions took place.

    (D) In the past, newspapers considered capital punishment important news and devoted extensive coverage to all executions.

    (E) Many executions that took place during the period studied were not reported objectively by the media.

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