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GRE北美试题20

2006-01-23 00:00

    No. 5-1  SECTION 1

    1. Clearly refuting sceptic, researchers have----not only that gravitational radiation exists but that it also does exactly what theory----it should do.

    (A) doubted.. warranted

    (B) estimated.. accepted

    (C) demonstrated.. predicted

    (D) assumed.. deduced

    (E) supposed.. asserted

    2. Sponsors of the bill were----because there was no opposition to it within the legislature until after the measure had been signed into law.

    (A) unreliable (B) well-intentioned

    (C) persistent (D) relieved (E) detained

    3. The paradoxical aspect of the myths about Demeter, when we consider the predominant image of her as a tranquil and serene goddess, is her----search for her daughter.

    (A) extended   (B) agitated

    (C) comprehensive  (D) motiveless

    (E) heartless

    4. Yellow fever, the disease that killed 4,000 Philadel- phians in 1793, and so----Memphis, Tennessee, that the city lost its charter, has reappeared after nearly two decades in----in the Western Hemi- sphere.

    (A) terrorized.. contention

    (B) ravaged.. secret

    (C) disabled.. quarantine

    (D) corrupted.. quiescence

    (E) decimated.. abeyance

    5. Although----, almost self-effacing in his private life, he displays in his plays and essays a strong

  ----publicity and controversy.

    (A) conventional.. interest in

    (B) monotonous.. reliance on

    (C) shy.. aversion toward

    (D) retiring.. penchant for

    (E) evasive.. impatience with

    6. Comparatively few rock musicians are willing to laugh at themselves, although a hint of----can boost sales of video clips very nicely.

    (A) self-deprecation    (B) congeniality

    (C) cynicism        (D) embarrassment

    (E) self-doubt

    7. Parts of seventeenth-century Chinese pleasure gar- dens were not necessarily intended to look---;they were designed expressly to evoke the agreeable melancholy resulting from a sense of the ----of natural beauty and human glory.

    (A) beautiful.. immutability

    (B) cheerful.. transitoriness

    (C) colorful.. abstractness

    (D) luxuriant.. simplicity

    (E) conventional.. wildness

    8. APPLE: SKIN::

    (A) potato: tuber  (B) melon: rind

    (C) tomato: fruit  (D) maize: cob

    (E) rhubarb: leafstalk

    9. FIRE: INFERNO::

    (A) speech: shout  (B) wind: temperature

    (C) storm: hurricane (D) whale: minnow

    (E) plant: flower

    10. BODYGUARD: PERSON::

    (A) police officer: traffic (B) teacher: pupil

    (C) major: city (D) soldier: country

    (E) secretary: office

    11. LOPE: RUN::

    (A) uncover: lose      (B) view: see

    (C) sigh: moan   (D) chew: drink

    (E) drawl: speak

    12. HOAX: DECEIVE::

    (A) scandal: vilify (B) lottery: disburse

    (C) gimmick: wheedle  (D) filibuster: delay

    (E) boast: cajole

    13. ALCOVE: RECESS::

    (A) turret: chimney (B) dome: roof

    (C) column: entrance (D) foyer: ballroom

    (E) foundation: building

    14. BALLAST: INSTABILITY::

    (A) buoy: direction (B) purchase: slippage

    (C) lathe: metal  (D) pulley: leverage

    (E) hoist: elevator

    15. MUFFLE: SOUND::

    (A) assuage: grief (B) maul: object

    (C) extract: flavor (D) endure: agony

    (E) conceal: secret

    16. MITIGATE: SEVERE::

    (A) compile: available  (B) restore: new

    (C) contribute: charitable

    (D) venerate: reverent     (E) qualify: general

    A Marxist sociologist has argued that racism stems from the class struggle that is unique to the capitalist system-that racial prejudice is generated by capitalists as a means of controlling workers. His thesis works rel- atively well when applied to discrimination against Blacks in the United States, but his definition of racial prejudice as "racially-based negative prejudgments against a group generally accepted as a race in any given region of ethnic competition," can be interpreted as also including hostility toward such ethnic groups as the Chinese in California and the Jews in medieval Europe. However, since prejudice against these latter peoples was not inspired by capitalists, he has to reason that such antagonisms were not really based on race. He disposes thusly (albeit unconvincingly) of both the intolerance faced by Jews before the rise of capitalism and the early twentieth-century discrimination against Oriental people in California, which, inconveniently, was instigated by workers.

    17. The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following questions?

    (A) What accounts for the prejudice against the Jews in medieval Europe?

    (B) What conditions caused the discrimination against Oriental people in California in the early twentieth century?

    (C) Which groups are not in ethnic competition with each other in the United States?

    (D) What explanation did the Marxist sociologist give for the existence of racial prejudice?

    (E) What evidence did the Marxist sociologist provide to support his thesis?

    18. The author considers the Marxist sociologist's thesis about the origins of racial prejudice to be

    (A) unoriginal  (B) unpersuasive

    (C) offensive (D) obscure (E) speculative

    19. It can be inferred from the passage that the Marxist sociologist would argue that in a noncapitalist society racial prejudice would be

    (A) pervasive (B) tolerated (C) ignored

    (D) forbidden (E) nonexistent

    20. According to the passage, the Marxist sociologist's chain of reasoning required him to assert that prej- udice toward Oriental people in California was

    (A) directed primarily against the Chinese

    (B) similar in origin to prejudice against the Jews

    (C) understood by Oriental people as ethnic competition

    (D) provoked by workers

    (E) nonracial in character

    By 1950, the results of attempts to relate brain processes to mental experience appeared rather dis- couraging. Such variations in size, shape, chemistry, conduction speed, excitation threshold, and the (5) like as had been demonstrated in nerve cells remained negligible in significance for any possible correlation with the manifold dimensions of mental experience.

    Near the turn of the century, it had been sug- (10) gested by Hering that different modes of sensation, such as pain, taste, and color, might be correlated with the discharge of specific kinds of nervous energy. However, subsequently developed methods of recording and analyzing nerve potentials failed (15) to reveal any such qualitative diversity. It was possi- ble to demonstrate by other methods refined struc- tural differences among neuron types; however, proof was lacking that the quality of the impulse or its condition was influenced by these differences, (20) which seemed instead to influence the developmen- tal patterning of the neural circuits. Although quali- tative variance among nerve energies was never rigidly disproved, the doctrine was generally aban- doned in favor of the opposing view, namely, that (25) nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous in qual- ity and are transmitted as "common currency" throughout the nervous system. According to this theory, it is not the quality of the sensory nerve impulses that determines the diverse conscious sen- (30) sations they produce, but rather the different areas of the brain into which they discharge, and there is some evidence for this view. In one experiment, when an electric stimulus was applied to a given sensory field of the cerebral cortex of a conscious (35) human subject, it produced a sensation of the appropriate modality for that particular locus, that is, a visual sensation from the visual cortex, an audi- tory sensation from the auditory cortex, and so on. Other experiments revealed slight variations in (40) the size, number, arrangement, and interconnection of the nerve cells, but as far  as psychoneural corre- lations were concerned, the obvious similarities of these sensory fields to each other seemed much more remarkable than any of the minute differ- (45) ences.

    However, cortical locus, in itself, turned out to have little explanatory value. Studies showed that sensations as diverse as those of red, black, green, and white, or touch, cold, warmth, movement, (50) pain, posture, and pressure apparently may arise through activation of the same cortical areas. What seemed to remain was some kind of differential pat- terning effects in the brain excitation: it is the dif- ference in the central distribution of impulses that (55) counts. In short, brain theory suggested a correla- tion between mental experience and the activity of relatively homogeneous nerve-cell units conducting essentially homogeneous impulses through homoge- neous cerebral tissue. To match the multiple dimen- (60) sions of mental experience psychologists could only point to a limitless variation in the spatiotemporal patterning of nerve impulses.

    21. The author suggests that, by 1950, attempts to cor- relate mental experience with brain processes would probably have been viewed with

    (A) indignation  (B) impatience

    (C) pessimism  (D) indifference  (E) defiance

    22. The author mentions "common currency" in line 26 primarily in order to emphasize the

    (A) lack of differentiation among nerve impulses in human beings

    (B) similarity of the sensations that all human beings experience

    (C) similarities in the views of scientists who have studied the human nervous system

    (D) continuous passage of nerve impulses through the nervous system

    (E) recurrent questioning by scientists of an accepted explanation about the nervous system

    23. The description in lines 32-38 of an experiment in which electric stimuli were applied to different sen- sory fields of the cerebral cortex tends to support the theory that

    (A) the simple presence of different cortical areas cannot account for the diversity of mental experience

    (B) variation in spatiotemporal patterning of nerve impulses correlates with variation in subjec- tive experience

    (C) nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous and are relatively unaffected as they travel through the nervous system

    (D) the mental experiences produced by sensory nerve impulses are determined by the corti- cal area activated

    (E) variation in neuron types affects the quality of nerve impulses

    24. According to the passage, some evidence exists that the area of the cortex activated by a sensory stimu- lus determines which of the following?

    I. The nature of the nerve impulse

    II. The modality of the sensory experience

    III. Qualitative differences within a modality

    (A) II only   (B) III only   (C) I and II only

    (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III

    25. The passage can most accurately be described as a discussion concerning historical views of the

    (A) anatomy of the brain

    (B) manner in which nerve impulses are conducted

    (C) significance of different cortical areas in mental experience

    (D) mechanics of sense perception

    (E) physiological correlates of mental experience

    26. Which of the following best summarizes the author's opinion of the suggestion that different areas of the brain determine perceptions produced by sensory nerve impulses?

    (A) It is a plausible explanation, but it has not been completely proved.

    (B) It is the best explanation of brain processes cur- rently available.

    (C) It is disproved by the fact that the various areas of the brain are physiologically very similar.

    (D) There is some evidence to support it, but it fails to explain the diversity of mental experience.

    (E) There is experimental evidence that confirms its correctness.

    27. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following exhibit the LEAST qualitative variation?

    (A) Nerve cells  (B) Nerve impulses

    (C) Cortical areas

    (D) Spatial patterns of nerve impulses

    (E) Temporal patterns of nerve impulses

    28. LAG:

    (A) look around  (B) dodge easily

    (C) seem hard  (D) forge ahead

    (E) change radically

    29. RANDOMIZE:

    (A) distribute  (B) analyze

    (C) systematize   (D) blend   (E) prepare

    30. SURCHARGE:

    (A) loss  (B) liability   (C) decrease

    (D) shortfall  (E) discount

    31. SYNCHRONOUS:

    (A) off-key   (B) out-of-shape

    (C) without pity  (D) out-of-phase

    (E) without difficulty

    32. PROFUSE:

    (A) recurrent (B) rare  (C) comprehensible

    (D) scanty  (E) flawed

    33. INERTIA:

    (A) short duration (B) massless particle

    (C) resistant medium

    (D) ability to maintain pressure

    (E) tendency to change motion

    34. DIN:

    (A) silence   (B) slowness (C) sharpness

    (D) essence   (E) repose

    35. GAUCHENESS:

    (A) probity   (B) sophistry (C) acumen

    (D) polish   (E) vigor

    36. INCHOATE:

    (A) sordid   (B) modern  (C) improvised

    (D) exceptionally quick

    (E) completely formed

    37. ENDEMIC:

    (A) exotic   (B) shallow  (C) episodic

    (D) manifest (E) treatable

    38. REDOUBTABLE:

    (A) unsurprising  (B) unambiguous

    (C) unimpressive  (D) inevitable

    (E) immovable

    No. 5-1  SECTION 2

    1. Since it is now----to build the complex central processing unit of a computer on a single silicon chip using photolithography and chemical etching, it seems plausible that other miniature structures might be fabricated in----ways.

    (A) unprecedented.. undiscovered

    (B) difficult.. related (C) permitted.. unique

    (D) mandatory.. congruent (E) routine.. similar

    2. Given the evidence of Egyptian and Babylonian

  ----later Greek civilization, it would be incorrect

    to view the work of Greek scientists as an entirely independent creation.

    (A) disdain for  (B) imitation of

    (C) ambivalence about  (D) deference to

    (E) influence on

    3. Laws do not ensure social order since laws can always be----, which makes them----unless the authorities have the will and the power to detect and punish wrongdoing.

    (A) contested.. provisional

    (B) circumvented.. antiquated

    (C) repealed.. vulnerable

    (D) violated.. ineffective

    (E) modified.. unstable

    4. Since she believed him to be both candid and trust- worthy, she refused to consider the possibility that his statement had been----.

    (A) irrelevant (B) facetious (C) mistaken

    (D) critical  (E) insincere

    5. Ironically, the party leaders encountered no greater

  ----their efforts to build a progressive party than

    the----of the progressives already elected to the legislature.

    (A) support for.. advocacy

    (B) threat to.. promise

    (C) benefit from.. success

    (D) obstacle to.. resistance

    (E) praise for.. reputation

    6. It is strange how words shape our thoughts and trap us at the bottom of deeply----canyons of thinking, their imprisoning sides carved out by the

  ----of past usage.

    (A) cleaved.. eruptions (B) rooted.. flood

    (C) incised.. river  (D) ridged.. ocean

    (E) notched.. mountains

    7. That his intransigence in making decisions----no open disagreement from any quarter was well known; thus, clever subordinates learned the art of

  ----their opinions in casual remarks.

    (A) elicited.. quashing

    (B) engendered.. recasting

    (C) brooked.. intimating

    (D) embodied.. instigating

    (E) forbore.. emending

    8. BABBLE: TALK::

    (A) chisel: sculpt  (B) harmonize: sing

    (C) scribble: write (D) hint: imply

    (E) quibble: elude

    9. SYLLABUS: COURSE::

    (A) rules: jury (B) map: destination

    (C) recipe: ingredients    (D) appetizer: meal

    (E) agenda: meeting

    10. VARNISH: WOOD::

    (A) etch: glass  (B) tarnish: silver

    (C) wax: linoleum (D) burnish: metal

    (E) bleach: fabric

    11. PITCH: SOUND::

    (A) color: light  (B) mass: weight

    (C) force: pressure (D) energy: heat

    (E) velocity: time

    12. DISCOMFITED: BLUSH::

    (A) nonplussed: weep (B) contemptuous: sneer

    (C) affronted: blink (D) sullen: groan

    (E) aggrieved: gloat

    13. INVINCIBLE: SUBDUED::

    (A) inconsistent: expressed

    (B) impervious: damaged

    (C) imprudent: enacted  (D) bolted: separated

    (E) expensive: bought

    14. STRIATED: GROOVE::

    (A) adorned: detail (B) woven: texture

    (C) engraved: curve (D) constructed: design

    (E) braided: strand

    15. DOGGEREL: VERSE::

    (A) burlesque: play (B) sketch: drawing

    (C) operetta: symphony  (D) fable: narration

    (E) limerick: sonnet

    16. DROLL: LAUGH::

    (A) grisly: flinch  (B) bland: tire

    (C) shrill: shriek  (D) coy: falter

    (E) wily: smirk

    The transfer of heat and water vapor from the ocean to the air above it depends on a disequilibrium at the interface of the water and the air. Within about a mil- limeter of the water, air temperature is close to that of the surface water, and the air is nearly saturated with water vapor. But the differences, however small, are crucial, and the disequilibrium is maintained by air near the surface mixing with air higher up, which is typically appreciably cooler and lower in water-vapor content. The air is mixed by means of turbulence that depends on the wind for its energy. As wind speed increases, so does turbulence, and thus the rate of heat and moisture transfer. Detailed understanding of this phenomenon awaits further study. An interacting-and complicat- ing-phenomenon is wind-to-water transfer of momen- tum that occurs when waves are formed. When the wind makes waves, it transfers important amounts of energy-energy that is therefore not available to provide turbulence.

    17. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) resolve a controversy

    (B) describe a phenomenon

    (C) outline a theory

    (D) confirm research findings

    (E) classify various observations

    18. According to the passage, wind over the ocean gen- erally does which of the following?

    I. Causes relatively cool, dry air to come into proximity with the ocean surface.

    II. Maintains a steady rate of heat and moisture transfer between the ocean and the air.

    III. Causes frequent changes in the temperature of the water at the ocean's surface.

    (A) I only   (B) II only   (C) I and II only

    (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III

    19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author regards current knowledge about heat and moisture transfer from the ocean to air as

    (A) revolutionary  (B) inconsequential

    (C) outdated    (D) derivative (E) incomplete

    20. The passage suggests that if on a certain day the wind were to decrease until there was no wind at all which of the following would occur?

    (A) The air closest to the ocean surface would become saturated with water vapor.

    (B) The air closest to the ocean surface would be warmer than the water.

    (C) The amount of moisture in the air closest to the ocean surface would decrease.

    (D) The rate of heat and moisture transfer would increase.

    (E) The air closest to the ocean would be at the same temperature as air higher up.

    Extraordinary creative activity has been characterized as revolutionary, flying in the face of what is established and producing not what is acceptable but what will become accepted. According to this formulation, highly creative activity transcends the limits of an existing form and establishes a new principle of organization. How- ever, the idea that extraordinary creativity transcends established limits in misleading when it is applied to the arts, even though it may be valid for the sciences. Differ- ences between highly creative art and highly creative sci- ence arise in part from a difference in their goals. For the sciences, a new theory is the goal and end result of the creative act. Innovative science produces new proposi- tions in terms of which diverse phenomena can be related to one another in more coherent ways. Such phe- nomena as a brilliant diamond or a nesting bird are rele- gated to the role of data, serving as the means for for- mulating or testing a new theory. The goal of highly creative art is very different: the phenomenon itself becomes the direct product of the creative act. Shake- speare's Hamlet is not a tract about the behavior of indecisive princes or the uses of political power; nor is Picasso's painting Guernica primarily a propositional statement about the Spanish Civil War or the evils of fascism. What highly creative artistic activity produces is not a new generalization that transcends established lim- its, but rather an aesthetic particular. Aesthetic particu- lars produced by the highly creative artist extend or exploit, in an innovative way, the limits of an existing form, rather than transcend that form.

    This is not to deny that a highly creative artist some- times establishes a new principle of organization in the history of an artistic field; the composer Monteverdi, who created music of the highest aesthetic value, comes to mind. More generally, however, whether or not a composition establishes a new principle in the history of music has little bearing on its aesthetic worth. Because they embody a new principle of organization, some musical works, such as the operas of the Florentine Camerata, are of signal historical importance, but few listeners or musicologists would include these among the great works of music. On the other hand, Mozart's The Marriage of Figaro is surely among the masterpieces of music even though its modest innovations are confined to extending existing means. It has been said of Beethoven that he toppled the rules and freed music from the stifling confines of convention. But a close study of his compositions reveals that Beethoven over- turned no fundamental rules. Rather, he was an incom- parable strategist who exploited limits-the rules, forms, and conventions that he inherited from predecessors such as Haydn and Mozart, Handel and Bach-in strik- ingly original ways.

    21. The author considers a new theory that coherently relates diverse phenomena to one another to be the

    (A) basis for reaffirming a well-established scientific formulation

    (B) byproduct of an aesthetic experience

    (C) tool used by a scientist to discover a new particular

    (D) synthesis underlying a great work of art

    (E) result of highly creative scientific activity

    22. The author implies that Beethoven's music was strikingly original because Beethoven

    (A) strove to outdo his predecessors by becoming the first composer to exploit limits

    (B) fundamentally changed the musical forms of his predecessors by adopting a richly inven- tive strategy

    (C) embellished and interwove the melodies of sev- eral of the great composers who preceded him

    (D) manipulated the established conventions of musical composition in a highly innovative fashion

    (E) attempted to create the illusion of having tran- scended the musical forms of his predecessors

    23. The passage states that the operas of the Florentine Camerata are

    (A) unjustifiably ignored by musicologists

    (B) not generally considered to be of high aesthetic value even though they are important in the history of music

    (C) among those works in which popular historical themes were portrayed in a musical produc- tion

    (D) often inappropriately cited as examples of musical works in which a new principle of organization was introduced

    (E) minor exceptions to the well-established gener- alization that the aesthetic worth of a com- position determines its importance in the his- tory of music

    24. The passage supplies information for answering all of the following questions EXCEPT:

    (A) Has unusual creative activity been character- ized as revolutionary?

    (B) Did Beethoven work within a musical tradition that also included Handel and Bach?

    (C) Is Mozart's The Marriage of Figaro an example of a creative work that transcended limits?

    (D) Who besides Monteverdi wrote music that the author would consider to embody new prin- ciples of organization and to be of high aes- thetic value?

    (E) Does anyone claim that the goal of extraordi- nary creative activity in the arts differs from that of extraordinary creative activity in the sciences?

    25. The author regards the idea that all highly creative artistic activity transcends limits with

    (A) deep skepticism (B) strong indignation

    (C) marked indifference

    (D) moderate amusement

    (E) sharp derision

    26. The author implies that an innovative scientific con- tribution is one that

    (A) is cited with high frequency in the publications of other scientists

    (B) is accepted immediately by the scientific com- munity

    (C) does not relegate particulars to the role of data

    (D) presents the discovery of a new scientific fact

    (E) introduces a new valid generalization

    27. Which of the following statements would most logi- cally concluded the last paragraph of the passage?

    (A) Unlike Beethoven, however, even the greatest of modern composers, such as Stravinsky, did not transcend existing musical forms.

    (B) In similar fashion, existing musical forms were even further exploited by the next generation of great European composers.

    (C) Thus, many of the great composers displayed the same combination of talents exhibited by Monteverdi.

    (D) By contrast, the view that creativity in the arts exploits but does not transcend limits is sup- ported in the field of literature.

    (E) Actually, Beethoven's most original works were largely unappreciated at the time that they were first performed.

    28. BRILLIANCE:

    (A) dullness   (B) emptiness

    (C) awkwardness  (D) state of immobility

    (E) excess of information

    29. QUANDARY:

    (A) state of suppressed enmity

    (B) state of complete certainty

    (C) state of mild hysteria

    (D) state of unprovoked anger

    (E) state of feeble opposition

    30. AGGREGATE:

    (A) altered plans    (B) intended actions

    (C) unexplained occurrences

    (D) isolated units   (E) unfounded conclusions

    31. SUBSTANTIATION:

    (A) disproof  (B) dissent (C) delusion

    (D) debate  (E) denial

    32. IMPUDENT:

    (A) compelling (B) mature (C) respectful

    (D) thorough (E) deliberate

    33. RECANT:

    (A) propose  (B) respond (C) instruct

    (D) affirm  (E) disclose

    34. DIVEST:

    (A) multiply  (B) initiate (C) triumph

    (D) persist  (E) endow

    35. BANALITY:

    (A) accurate portrayal

    (B) impromptu statement

    (C) original expression

    (D) succinct interpretation

    (E) elaborate critique

    36. UBIQUITOUS:

    (A) uniform   (B) unanimous  (C) unique

    (D) anachronistic  (E) mediocre

    37. ESCHEW:

    (A) invest   (B) consume  (C) maintain

    (D) condemn (E) seek

    38. BELIE:

    (A) flaunt   (B) distend     (C) attune

    (D) obviate   (E) aver

    SECTION 5

    Questions 1-3

    Six employees-L, M, N, O, P, and R-are being assigned to offices, each of which can accommodate two persons and no more than two. Each person must be assigned to exactly one office and must be assigned to that office either alone or else together with one other member of the group of six. Enough offices are available to permit any possible assignment of group members to offices, but the following restrictions must be observed:

    M cannot share an office with N.

    N cannot share an office with O.

    P and R must share an office together.

    1. Which of the following pairs of employees can be assigned to one office together?

    (A) L and O  (B) L and R (C) N and O

    (D) M and N (E) P and M

    2. If N is assigned to an office alone, which of the following must be true?

    (A) No one other than N is assigned to an office alone.

    (B) L shares an office with O.

    (C) M is assigned to an office alone.

    (D) The group occupies either 4 or 5 offices.

    (E) The group occupies either 3 or 6 offices.

    3. If P and R are the only ones who shares an office, how many offices are the minimum that can accom- modate the group?

    (A) 2  (B) 3  (C) 4   (D) 5 (E) 6

    4. During the month of July in City X, the humidity was always 80 percent of higher whenever the tem- perature was 75°F or higher. Temperatures that month ranged from 65°to 95°F.

    If the statements in the passage above are true, which of the following CANNOT be an accurate report of a temperature and humidity reading for City X in July?

    (A) 77°F 81%     (B) 76°F, 80%

    (C) 75°F 79%    (D) 74°F, 78%

    (E) 73°F, 77%

    5. Anyone who has owned a car knows that saving money in the short run by skimping on relatively minor repairs and routine maintenance will prove very costly in the long run. However, this basic truth is often forgotten by those who call for reduced government spending on social programs.

    Which of the following is NOT implied by the anal- ogy above as a point of comparison?

    (A) Money that is spent on repairs and mainte- nance helps to ensure the continued func- tioning of a car.

    (B) Owners can take chances on not maintaining or repairing their cars.

    (C) In order to keep operating, cars will normally need some work.

    (D) The problems with a car will become worse if they are not attended to.

    (E) A car will last for only a limited period of time and then must be replaced.

    6. If athletes want better performances, they should train at high altitudes. At higher altitudes, the body has more red blood cells per unit volume of blood than at sea level. The red blood cells transport oxy- gen, which will improve performance if available in greater amounts. The blood of an athlete who trains at high altitudes will transport more oxygen per unit volume of blood, improving the athlete's performance.

    Which of the following, if true, would be most damaging to the argument above, provided that the athlete's heart rate is the same at high and low alti- tudes?

    (A) Scientists have found that an athlete's heart requires a period of time to adjust to working at high altitudes.

    (B) Scientists have found that the body's total volume of blood declines by as much as 25 percent at high altitudes.

    (C) Middle-distance runners who train at high altitudes sometimes lose races to middle- distance runners who train at sea level.

    (D) The performances of athletes in competitions at all altitudes have improved markedly dur- ing the past twenty years.

    (E) At altitudes above 5,500 feet, middle-distance runners often better their sea-level running times by several seconds.

    Questions 7-13

    When they hold a meeting, seven company executives- T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z-sit at a rectangular table. Three executives sit along one side of the table, and three sit along the other side, each directly opposite one of the other three. The seventh sits at the head of the table; there is no seat at the foot of the table.

    U always sits in one of the two seats farthest from the head of the table.

    Y and V always sit next to each other.

    V never sits next to Z.

    If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W sits there.

    7. Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement of the executives, starting with U, moving toward the head of the table, and con- tinuing around the table?

    (A) U, X, T, Z, V, Y, W

    (B) U, T, X, Z, Y, V, W

    (C) U, X, Z, Y, V, W, T

    (D) U, Z, W, X, V, Y, T

    (E) U, T, X, W, Z, V, Y

    8. If W sits directly opposite T, X must sit next to which of the following executives?

    (A) T (B) U  (C) V  (D) Y    (E) Z

    9. If T sits directly opposite Z and next to V, which executive must sit directly opposite U?

    (A) V  (B) W (C) X  (D) Y    (E) Z

    10. If Z sits directly opposite X, which executive must sit next to U?

    (A) T  (B) V (C) W (D) Y  (E) Z

    11. If T and U sit immediately on either side of X, the executive sitting directly opposite X must be either

    (A) W or V  (B) W or Z (C) Y and V

    (D) Y or Z  (E) Z or V

    12. If W sits directly opposite U and next to T, the two executives sitting immediately on either side of X must be

    (A) Y and V  (B) Y and W  (C) T and Z

    (D) T and V  (E) Z and W

    13. If Z sits at the head of the table, Y directly opposite U, and V immediately on X's left, what is the total number of possible seating arrange- ments of the executives?

    (A) 1 (B) 2   (C) 3    (D) 4   (E) 5

    Questions 14-16

    A weaver who is working on six rugs-G, H, I, J, K, and L-is preparing a work schedule for a work week consisting of five consecutive workdays- Monday through Friday. Rugs G, H, and I are of pattern 1, rugs J and K are of pattern 2, and rug L is of pattern 3.The work must be scheduled in accor- dance with the following conditions:

    The weaver must work on each of the six rugs dur- ing the work week.

    The weaver cannot work on the same rug on two consecutive days.

    On any day that the weaver works on rug G, the weaver must work on rug J; the weaver cannot work on rug L that day.

    On any day that the weaver works on more than one rug, those rugs must all be of different pat- terns.

    14. The weaver could schedule work on which of the following rugs for the same day?

    (A) G, J, and L  (B) G, I, and K

    (C) G, J, and K  (D) H, I, and L

    (E) H, J, and L

    15. If the weaver's decision is to work on rug J on Tuesday, the weaver CANNOT work on rug

    (A) G on Monday (B) H on Tuesday

    (C) I on Wednesday (D) K on Thursday

    (E) L on Friday

    16. If the weaver's decision is to work on rug G on Monday and Friday only, and on rug K on Wednesday only, the weaver must work on a rug of pattern 2 on exactly how many workdays?

    (A) 1 (B) 2    (C) 3   (D) 4   (E) 5

    Questions 17-22

    Ruth, Sandra. Thea, and Ulla are the four finalists in a contest in which they perform set exercises on a balance beam. In each round of the contest, different exercises must be attempted. A contestant is eliminated the first time she fails at any of the exercises. To reduce any effect that the relative order of contestants within rounds may have on their performance, their relative order must be changed in going from one round to the next if it is possible to do so by executing one of the following three alternative reorderings between rounds:

    X: Move the previously third contestant directly in front of the previously second contestant.

    Y: Move the previously third contestant directly in front of the previously first contestant.

    Z: Move the previously last contestant into first position.

    If a contestant mentioned in a reordering has just been eliminated, that reordering cannot be exe- cuted.

    If none of the reorderings can be executed, the remaining contestants must perform in the same order relative to each other as in the previous round.

    17. If the order of contestants in one round is Ulla, Ruth, Sandra. Thea, and if Sandra is alone in being eliminated in that round, the order of contestants for the next round must be which of the following?

    (A) Ruth, Thea, Ulla     (B) Ruth, Ulla, Thea

    (C) Thea, Ruth, Ulla    (D) Thea, Ulla, Ruth

    (E) Ulla, Ruth, Thea

    18. If the order of contestants in one round is Sandra, Ruth, Thea. Ulla, and if none of the contestants is eliminated in that round, it must be true that in the next round

    (A) Ruth is third  (B) Sandra is second

    (C) Thea is first  (D) Ulla is first

    (E) Ulla is fourth

    19. The elimination of which of the following pairs of contestants in a round in which all four contestants competed would have the consequence that the rel- ative position of the   remaining contestants remains unchanged?

    (A) Those competing first and second

    (B) Those competing first and third

    (C) Those competing second and third

    (D) Those competing second and fourth

    (E) Those competing third and fourth

    20. If the order of contestants in a round in which no one fails is Ruth, Thea, Ulla, Sandra, the order of contestants in the next round could be which of the following?

    (A) Ruth, Sandra, Ulla, Thea

    (B) Sandra, Ruth, Ulla, Thea

    (C) Sandra, Ulla, Ruth, Thea

    (D) Thea, Ruth, Ulla, Sandra

    (E) Ulla, Ruth, Thea, Sandra

    21. If none of the four contestants is eliminated in the course of the first tow rounds, and if the order of contestants in the third round is the same as it was in the first round, which of the following must have been the two reorderings executed so far?

    (A) X, twice   (B) Z, twice

    (C) X, followed by Y (D) Y, followed by X

    (E) Z, followed by Y

    22. If the order of contestants in one round is Thea, Sandra, Ulla, Ruth, and if Sandra remains in second position afterward, which of the following could have happened?

    (A) None of the contestants was eliminated in the round, and X was executed.

    (B) Ruth alone was eliminated in the round, and X was executed.

    (C) Thea alone was eliminated in the round, and Y was executed.

    (D) Ulla alone was eliminated in the round, and Z was executed.

    (E) Thea alone was eliminated in the round, and Z was executed.

    23. M is heavier than Q, but it is lighter than R. S is heavier than Q and it is also heavier than R. U is heavier than Q and it is also heavier than R. If the statements above are true, one can conclude with certainty that T is heavier than M if one knows addition that

    (A) S weighs the same as U weighs

    (B) S is heavier than T

    (C) T is heavier than Q

    (D) T is heavier than U

    (E) U is heavier than M

    24. The cost of the average computer logic device is falling at the rate of 25 percent per year, and the cost of the average computer memory device at the rate of 40 percent per year. It can be concluded that if these rates of cost decline remain constant for a period of three years, at the end of that time the cost of the average computer memory device will have declined by a greater amount than the cost of the average computer logic device.

    Accurate information about which of the following would be most useful in evaluating the correctness of the conclusion above?

    (A) The number of logic devices and memory devices projected to be purchased during the next three years

    (B) The actual prices charged for the average com- puter logic device and the average computer memory device

    (C) The compatibility of different manufacturers' logic devices and memory devices

    (D) The relative durability of logic devices and memory devices

    (E) The average number of logic devices and mem- ory devices needed for an average computer system

    25. Earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and unusual weather have caused many more natural disasters adversely affecting people in the past decade than in previous decades. We can conclude that the planet Earth as a natural environment has become more inhospitable and dangerous, and we should employ the weather and earth sciences to look for causes of this trend.

    The conclusion drawn above is most seriously weakened if which of the following is true?

    (A) The weather and earth sciences have provided better early warning systems for natural disasters in the past decade than in previous decades.

    (B) International relief efforts for victims of natural disasters have been better organized in the past decade than in previous decades.

    (C) There are records of major earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, droughts, landslides, and floods occurring in the distant past, as well as in the recent past.

    (D) Population pressures and poverty have forced increasing numbers of people to live in areas prone to natural disasters.

    (E) There have been no changes in the past decade in people's land-use practices that could have affected the climate.

    No. 5-1  SECTION 6

    Questions 1-5

    Because of a computer malfunction, an accountant cannot directly determine the classification of certain accounts. Each account falls into one of five classifica- tions: type 1, type 2, type 3, type 4, or type 5. The accountant hopes to be able to determine the classifica- tion of these accounts by tracing which operations the computer has performed on them. There are exactly four operations: W, X, Y, and Z. No operation can be performed more than once on a given account, and the operations were performed, without exception, according to the following rules:

    If an account is a type 1, the computer performs either operation W or, alternatively, opera- tion X.

    If the account is a type 2, the computer performs either operation X alone or, alternatively, opera- tion X and any one of the remaining operations except W.

    If an account is a type 3, the computer performs either operation Y alone or, alternatively, opera- tion Y and one of the remaining operations

    If an account is a type 4, the computer performs exactly two operations in any combination except that X cannot be one of the two operations.

    If an account is a type 5, the computer performs exactly three operations in any combination drawn from the four operations.

    1. If the accountant knows that the computer has per- formed exactly one operation on an account, which of the following must be true?

    (A) The account is either a type 1 or a type 2.

    (B) The account is either a type 1, type 2, or a type 3.

    (C) The account is either a type 2, a type 3, or a type 5.

    (D) The account is either a type 2, a type 4, or a type 5.

    (E) The account is either a type 3, a type 4, or a type 5.

    2. If the accountant knows that the computer has performed operation Z on an account but cannot determine solely from traces in the account whether any other operation has been performed, the account could be any one of the five types EXCEPT type

    (A) 1 (B) 2   (C) 3 (D) 4    (E) 5

    3. Which type of account, if operated on by the com- puter, must have operation X performed on it?

    (A) Type 1  (B) Type 2    (C) Type 3

    (D) Type 4  (E) Type 5

    4. If the accountant knows that operations X and Z are the only operations that have been per- formed on an account, the account must be a type

    (A) 1   (B) 2  (C) 3  (D) 4    (E) 5

    5. If the accountant knows that the computer has per- formed exactly two operations on a given account, and operation Y was not one of the two, which of the following must be true?

    (A) The account is either a type 1 or a type 2.

    (B) The account is either a type 2 or a type 3.

    (C) The account is either a type 2 or a type 4.

    (D) The account is either a type 3 or a type 4.

    (E) The account is either a type 3 or a type 5.

    6. At the end of the Second World War the number of women in their childbearing years was at a record low. Yet for almost twenty years they produced a record high number of children. In 1957 there was an average of 3.72 children per family. Now the postwar babies are producing a record low number of babies. In 1983 the average number of children per family was about 1.79-two children fewer than the 1957 rate and lower even than the 2.11 rate that a population needs to replace itself.

    It can properly be inferred from the passage that

    (A) for the birth rate to be high, there must be a relatively large number of women in their childbearing years

    (B) the most significant factor influencing the birth rate is whether the country is engaged in a war

    (C) unless there are extraordinary circumstances, the birth rate will not dip below the level at which a population replaces itself

    (D) for the birth rate to be low, there must be a relatively small number of women in their childbearing years

    (E).the birth rate is not directly proportional to the number of women in their childbearing years

    7. A study of illusionistic painting inevitably begins with the Greek painter Zeuxis. In an early work, which is the basis for his fame, he painted a bowl of grapes that was so lifelike that birds pecked at the fruit. In an attempt to expand his achievement to encompass human  figures, he painted a boy carrying a bunch of grapes. When birds immediately came to peck at the fruit, Zeuxis judged that he had failed.

    Zeuxis' judgment that he had failed in his later work was based on an assumption. Which of the follow- ing can have served as that assumption?

    (A) People are more easily fooled by illusionistic techniques than are birds.

    (B) The use of illusionistic techniques in painting had become commonplace by the time Zeuxis completed his later work.

    (C) The grapes in the later painting were even more realistic than the ones in the earlier work.

    (D) Birds are less likely to peck at fruit when they see that a human being is present.

    (E) After the success of his early work. Zeuxis was unable to live up to the expectations of the general public.

    8. The best argument for the tenure system that protects professional employment in universities is that it allows veteran faculty to hire people smarter than they are and yet remain secure in the knowledge that unless they themselves are caught in an act of moral turpitude-a concept that in the present climate almost defies defini- tion-the younger faculty cannot turn around and fire them. This is not true in industry.

    Which of the following assumptions is most likely to have been made by the author of the argument above?

    (A) Industry should follow the example of universities and protect the jobs of managers by instituting a tenure system.

    (B) If no tenure system existed, veteran faculty would be reluctant to hire new faculty who might threaten the veteran faculty's own jobs.

    (C) The traditional argument that the tenure system protects scholars in universities from being dismissed for holding unconventional or unpopular beliefs is no longer persuasive.

    (D) If a stronger consensus concerning what constitutes moral turpitude existed, the tenure system in universities would be expendable.

    (E) Veteran faculty will usually hire and promote new faculty whose scholarship is more up-to- date than their own.

    Questions 9-15

    The appellate court of a state in the United States is staffed by exactly eight judges-R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y. At the beginning of each session of the court, the clerk of the court announces two panels of three judges each, one to hear criminal cases and one to hear civil cases.

    No judge can serve on more than one panel at a session of the court.

    At least two members of the panel hearing criminal cases must have had prior experience with crimi- nal cases. The judges with experience in criminal cases, listed in order of descending seniority, are R, S, T, and U.

    At least two member of the panel hearing civil cases must have had prior experience with civil cases. The judges with experience in civil cases, listed in order of descending seniority, are V, W, X, and Y.

    The presiding judge of each panel is the judge among the three on the panel with the greatest seniority in the area of the cases.

    Each of the three major geographical regions of the state must be represented on every panel by exactly one judge. Judges S and W are from the western part of the state; Judges R, U, and Y are from the central part of the state; and Judges T, V, and X are from the eastern part of the state.

    If a judge cannot serve on a panel because of illness or conflict of interest, his or her place can be taken only by a judge who meets the necessary conditions for the panel.

    9. Which of the following could be the panel of judges selected to hear civil cases?

    (A) R, S, V  (B) S, U, X    (C) T, W, Y

    (D) U, V, Y  (E) V, X, Y

    10. If X is the presiding judge of the panel selected to hear civil cases, which of the following must be the other two members of that panel?

    (A) R and W    (B) S and U    (C) S and Y

    (D) T and Y  (E) U and V

    11. Which of the following could be the panel of judges selected to hear criminal cases?

    (A) R, S, X  (B) R, V, W (C) S, T, W

    (D) S, V, Y  (E) T, U, X

    12. The judges selected to serve on any panel announced by the clerk of the court must include either

    (A) R or U  (B) R or Y   (C) S or W

    (D) T or V  (E) T or X

    13. If the panel of judges hearing criminal cases consists of T, U, and W, and if U withdraws because of a conflict of interest and is replaced, which of the following judges will be the presiding judge of the panel hearing criminal cases after U has been replaced?

    (A) R   (B) S    (C) T   (D) W   (E) Y

    14. If V cannot serve on either panel and if the panel of judges hearing civil cases consists of U, W, and X, all of the following must be true EXCEPT:

    (A) S is a member of the panel hearing criminal cases.

    (B) T is a member of the panel hearing criminal cases.

    (C) T is the presiding judge of the panel hearing criminal cases.

    (D) W is the presiding judge of the panel hearing civil cases.

    (E) Either R or Y, but not both, is a member of the panel hearing criminal cases.

    15. If the panel of judges hearing criminal cases con- sists of T, U, and W, and if X is appointed as a replacement on the panel hearing civil cases, after that change which of the following judges will be the presiding judge of the panel hearing civil cases?

    (A) S  (B) V (C) W (D) X    (E) Y

    Questions 16-19

    A cryptanalyst must translate into letters all of the digits included in the following two lines of nine symbols each:

    9 3 3 4 5 6 6 6 7

    2 2 3 3 4 4 5 7 8

    The cryptanalyst has already determined some of the rules governing the decoding:

    Each of the digits from 2 to 9 represents exactly one of the eight letters A, E, I, O, U, R, S, and T, and each letter is represented by exactly one of the digits.

    If a digit occurs more than once, it represents the same letter on each occasion.

    The letter T and the letter O are each represented exactly 3 times.

    The letter I and the letter A are each represented exactly two times.

    The letter E is represented exactly four times.

    16. If 2 represents R and 7 represents A, then 5 must represent

    (A) I (B) O    (C) S   (D) T   (E) U

    17. Which of the following is a possible decoding of the five-digit message 4 6 5 3 6?

    (A) O-T-A-E-T  (B) O-T-E-U-T

    (C) O-O-S-E-O  (D) T-O-I-E-T

    (E) T-O-R-E-T

    18. If 9 represents a vowel, it must represent which of the following? (A) A   (B) E   (C) I   (D) O   (E) U

    19. If 8 represents a vowel, which of the following must represent a consonant?

    (A) 2   (B) 4   (C) 5   (D) 7   (E) 9

    Questions 20-22

    An instructor regularly offers a six-week survey course on film genres. Each time the course is given, she covers six of the following eight genres: adventure films, cinema noir, detective films, fantasy films, horror films, musical comedies, silent films, and westerns. She will discuss exactly one genre per week according to the fol- lowing conditions:

    Silent films are always covered, and always in the first week.

    Westerns and adventure films are always covered, with westerns covered in the week immediately preceding the week adventure films are covered.

    Musical comedies are never covered in the same course in which fantasy films are covered.

    If detective films are covered, they are covered after westerns are covered, with exactly one of the other genres covered between them.

    Cinema noir is not covered unless detective films are covered in one of the previous weeks.

    20. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule of genres for weeks one through six of the course?

    (A) Silent films, westerns, adventure films, detective films, horror films, musical comedies

    (B) Silent films, westerns, adventure films, horror films, detective films, fantasy films

    (C) Fantasy films, musical comedies, detective films, cinema noir, westerns, adventure films

    (D) Westerns, adventure films, detective films, cinema noir, musical comedies, horror films

    (E) Detective films, westerns, adventure films, horror films, fantasy films, cinema noir

    21. If musical comedies are covered the week immedi- ately preceding the week westerns are covered, which of the following can be true?

    (A) Adventure films are covered the second week.

    (B) Cinema noir is covered the fourth week.

    (C) Detective films are covered the third week.

    (D) Fantasy films are covered the fifth week.

    (E) Horror films are covered the sixth week.

    22. Which of the following will NEVER be covered in the sixth week of the course?

    (A) Cinema noir  (B) Fantasy films

    (C) Horror films  (D) Musical comedies

    (E) Westerns

    23. The population of elephant seals, reduced by hunt- ing to perhaps a few dozen animals early in this cen- tury, has soared under federal protection during the last few decades. However, because the species repopulated itself through extensive inbreeding, it now exhibits a genetic uniformity that is almost unparalleled in other species of mammals, and thus it is in far greater danger of becoming extinct than are most other species.

    Given the information in the passage above, which of the following is most likely the reason that other species of mammals are less likely than elephant seals to become extinct?

    (A) Other species of mammals have large popula- tions, so the loss of a few members of the species is not significant.

    (B) Other species of mammals have increased their knowledge of dangers through the experience of generation after generation of animals.

    (C) In other species of mammals, hunters can readily distinguish between males and females or between young animals and adults.

    (D) In other species of mammals, some members of the species are genetically better equipped to withstand a disease or event that destroys other members of the species.

    (E) Other species of mammals have retained habits of caution and alertness because they have not been protected as endangered species.

    24. Some people assert that prosecutors should be allowed to introduce illegally obtained evidence in criminal trials if the judge and jury can be persuaded that the arresting officer was not aware of violating or did not intend to violate the law while seizing the evidence. This proposed "good-faith exception" would weaken everyone's constitutional protection, lead to less careful police practices, and promote lying by law enforcement officers in court.

    The argument above for maintaining the prohibition against illegally obtained evidence assumes that

    (A) defendants in criminal cases should enjoy greater protection from the law than other citizens do

    (B) law enforcement authorities need to be encouraged to pursue criminals assiduously

    (C) the legal system will usually find ways to ensure that real crimes do not go unprosecuted

    (D) The prohibition now deters some unlawful searches and seizures

    (E) courts should consider the motives of law enforcement officers in deciding whether evidence brought forward by the officers is admissible in a trial

    25. If it is true that the streets and the sidewalks are wet whenever it is raining, which of the following must also be true?

    I. If the streets and sidewalks are wet, it is raining.

    II. If the streets are wet but the sidewalks are not wet, it is not raining.

    III. If it is not raining, the streets and sidewalks are not wet.

    (A) I only  (B) II only     (C) III only

    (D) I and II only       (E) II and III only

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