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GRE北美试题21

2006-01-23 00:00

    No. 5-2  SECTION 1

    1. Created to serve as perfectly as possible their workaday----, the wooden storage boxes made in America's Shaker communities are now----for their beauty.

    (A) environment.. accepted

    (B) owners.. employed

    (C) function.. valued

    (D) reality.. transformed

    (E) image.. seen

    2. In order to----her theory that the reactions are----, the scientist conducted many experiments, all

    of which showed that the heat of the first reaction is more than twice that of the second.

    (A) support.. different

    (B) comprehend.. constant

    (C) evaluate.. concentrated

    (D) capture.. valuable

    (E) demonstrate.. problematic

    3. The sheer bulk of data from the mass media seems to overpower us and drive us to----accounts for an easily and readily digestible portion of news.

    (A) insular (B) investigative   (C) synoptic

    (D) subjective     (E) sensational

    4. William James lacked the usual----death; writing to his dying father, he spoke without----about the old man's impending death.

    (A) longing for.. regret

    (B) awe of.. inhibition

    (C) curiosity about.. rancor

    (D) apprehension of.. eloquence

    (E) anticipation of.. commiseration

    5. Current data suggest that, although----states between fear and aggression exist, fear and aggres- sion are as distinct physiologically as they are psychologically.

    (A) simultaneous  (B) serious

    (C) exceptional  (D) partial

    (E) transitional

    6. It is ironic that a critic of such overwhelming vanity now suffers from a measure of the oblivion to which he was forever----others, in the end, all his----has only worked against him

    (A) dedicating.. self-procession

    (B) leading.. self-righteousness

    (C) consigning.. self-adulation

    (D) relegating.. self-sacrifice

    (E) condemning.. self-analysis

    7. Famous among job seekers for its----, the com- pany, quite apart from generous salaries, bestowed on its executives annual bonuses and such----as low-interest home mortgages and company cars.

    (A) magnanimity.. reparations

    (B) inventiveness.. benefits

    (C) largesse.. perquisites

    (D) discernment.. prerogatives

    (E) altruism.. credits

    8. WEB: SPIDER::

    (A) flower: bee  (B) canal: otter

    (C) nest: bird    (D) acorn: squirrel

    (E) bait: fish

    9. FOUR-POSTER: BED::

    (A) convertible: automobile

    (B) soldier: army  (C) student: school

    (D) chlorine: water     (E) paper: wood

    10. BONE: BODY::

    (A) scaffold: hinge    (B) brace: corner

    (C) strut: buttress     (D) lattice: division

    (E) girder: skyscraper

    11. SCOOP: CONCAVE::

    (A) tongs: hollow   (B) spatula: flat

    (C) beater: tined    (D) cleaver: indented

    (E) skewer: rounded

    12. SYMBOLS: RERUS::

    (A) notes: score  (B) military: insignia

    (C) proportions: recipe

    (D) program: computer

    (E) silversmith: hallmark

    13. GUSH: EFFUSIVE::

    (A) exult: honest  (B) deliberate: secretive

    (C) giggle: innocent    (D) rage: irate

    (E) whisper: confidential

    14. PERORATION: SPEECH::

    (A) tempo: movement    (B) figure: portrait

    (C) light: shadow  (D) verse: stanza

    (E) coda: sonata

    15. INTERREGNUM: GOVERNMENT::

    (A) splice: rope  (B) cleavage: crystal

    (C) infraction: law    (D) frequency: wave

    (E) hibernation: activity

    16. EMBROIDER: CLOTH::

    (A) chase: metal  (B) patch: quilt

    (C) gild: gold   (D) carve:knife

    (E) stain: glass

    Visual recognition involves storing and retrieving mem- ories. Neural activity, triggered by the eye, forms an image in the brain's memory system that constitutes an internal representation of the viewed object. When an object is encountered again, it is matched with its inter- nal representation and thereby recognized. Controversy surrounds the question of whether recognition is a paral- lel, one-step process or a serial, step-by-step one. Psy- chologists of the Gestalt school maintain that objects are recognized as wholes in a parallel procedure: the inter- nal representation is matched with the retinal image in a single operation. Other psychologists have proposed that internal representation features are matched serially with an object's features. Although some experiments show that, as an object becomes familiar, its internal represen- tation becomes more holistic and the recognition process correspondingly more parallel, the weight of evidence seems to support the serial hypothesis, at least for objects that are not notably simple and familiar.

    17. The author is primarily concerned with

    (A) explaining how the brain receives images

    (B) synthesizing hypotheses of visual recognition

    (C) examining the evidence supporting the serial- recognition hypothesis

    (D) discussing visual recognition and some hypotheses proposed to explain it

    (E) reporting on recent experiments dealing with memory systems and their relationship to neural activity

    18. According to the passage, Gestalt psychologists make which of the following suppositions about visual recognition?

    I. A retinal image is in exactly the same forms as its internal representation.

    II. An object is recognized as a whole without any need for analysis into component parts.

    III. The matching of an object with its internal representation occurs in only one step.

    (A) II only   (B) III only

    (C) I and III only  (D) II and III only

    (E) I, II, and III

    19. It can be inferred from the passage that the match- ing process in visual recognition is

    (A) not a neural activity

    (B) not possible when an object is viewed for the very first time

    (C) not possible if a feature of a familiar object is changed in some way

    (D) only possible when a retinal image is received in the brain as a unitary whole

    (E) now fully understood as a combination of the serial and parallel processes

    20. It terms of its tone and form, the passage can best be characterized as

    (A) a biased exposition

    (B) a speculative study

    (C) a dispassionate presentation

    (D) an indignant denial

    (E) a dogmatic explanation

    In large part as a consequence of the feminist move- ment, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

    Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical fact, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient soci- eties. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs-societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek "historian" of the fifth century B. C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

    Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic. If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact-real Amazonian societies-but rather to offer "moral lessons" on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society. The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respect- able society, but as the very antitheses of ordinary Greek practices.

    Thus, I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders was didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Ama- zons were used as arguments for the male-dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. The sources that will probably tell contempo- rary historians most about women in the ancient world are such social documents as gravestones, wills, and marriage contracts. Studies of such documents have already begun to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources, especially myths.

    21. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) compare competing new approaches to understanding the role of women in ancient societies

    (B) investigate the ramifications of Bachofen's theory about the dominance of women in ancient societies

    (C) explain the burgeoning interest among historians in determining the actual status of women in various societies

    (D) analyze the nature of Amazonian society and uncover similarities between it and the Greek world

    (E) criticize the value of ancient myths in determining the status of women in ancient societies

    22. All of the following are stated by the author as problems connected with the sources for knowledge of premodern cultures EXCEPT

    (A) partial completeness

    (B) restricted accessibility

    (C) difficulty of interpretation

    (D) limited quantity

    (E) tendency toward contradiction

    23. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the myths recorded by the ancient Greeks?

    I. They sometimes included portrayals of women holding positions of power.

    II. They sometimes contained elaborate explanations of inheritance customs.

    III. They comprise almost all of the material available to historians about ancient Greece.

    (A) I only (B) III only  (C) I and III only

    (D) II and III only   (E) I, II, and III

    24. Which of the following is presented in the passage as evidence supporting the author's view of the ancient Greeks' descriptions of the Amazons?

    (A) The requirement that Sauromatae women kill in battle before marrying

    (B) The failure of historians to verify that women were ever governors of ancient societies

    (C) The classing of Amazons with giants and centaurs

    (D) The well-established unreliability of Herodotus as a source of information about ancient societies

    (E) The recent discovery of ancient societies with matrilineal customs

    25. It can be inferred from the passage that the probable reactions of many males in ancient Greece to the idea of a society ruled by women could best char- acterized as

    (A) confused and dismayed

    (B) wary and hostile

    (C) cynical and disinterested

    (D) curious but fearful

    (E) excited but anxious

    26. The author suggests that the main reason for the persisting influence of Bachofen's work is that

    (A) feminists have shown little interest in ancient societies

    (B) Bachofen's knowledge of Amazonian culture is unparablleled

    (C) reliable information about the ancient world is difficult to acquire

    (D) ancient societies show the best evidence of women in positions of power

    (E) historians have been primarily interested in the modern period

    27. The author's attitude toward Bachofen's treatise is best described as one of

    (A) qualified approval

    (B) profound ambivalence

    (C) studied neutrality

    (D) pointed disagreement

    (E) unmitigated hostility

    28. COLLECT:

    (A) scatter   (B) avoid (C) hide

    (D) search  (E) create

    29. SERRATED:

    (A) without joints   (B) without folds

    (C) without notches   (D) variegated

    (E) mutated

    30. FLEDGLING:

    (A) experienced practitioner

    (B) successful competitor

    (C) reluctant volunteer

    (D) recent convert

    (E) attentive listener

    31. SUPPOSITION:

    (A) certainty   (B) inferiority  (C) irrelevance

    (D) unexpected occurrence   (E) clear position

    32. ABERRANT:

    (A) attractive   (B) predictive    (C) blissful

    (D) normal  (E) precise

    33. OBDURATE:

    (A) flexible    (B) timid  (C) retrospective

    (D) whimsical    (E) alienated

    34. LIST:

    (A) be upside down   (B) be upright

    (C) slide backward   (D) sway to and fro

    (E) lie flat

    35. FORESTALL:

    (A) announce   (B) equivocate  (C) prolong

    (D) precipitate    (E) steady

    36. TENDENTIOUS:

    (A) unbiased  (B) severely hampered

    (C) inapplicable  (D) highly productive

    (E) curved

    37. REDUNDANT:

    (A) consistent   (B) complex   (C) diffuse

    (D) insightful   (E) economical

    38. RUE:

    (A) tenderness    (B) sincerity   (C) heartiness

    (D) spite  (E) satisfaction

    No. 5-2  SECTION 2

    1. There are no solitary, free-living creatures; every form of life is----other forms.

    (A) segregated from   (B) parallel to

    (C) dependent on  (D) overshadowed by

    (E) mimicked by

    2. The sale of Alaska was not so much an American coup as a matter of----for an imperial Russia that was short of cash and unable to----its own continental coastline.

    (A) negligence.. fortify

    (B) custom.. maintain

    (C) convenience.. stabalize

    (D) expediency.. defend

    (E) exigency.. reinforce

    3. Despite assorted effusions to the contrary, there is no necessary link between scientific skill and human- ism, and, quite possibly, there may be something of a----between them.

    (A) generality   (B) fusion (C) congruity

    (D) dichotomy    (E) reciprocity

    4. A common argument claims that in folk art, the artist's subordination of technical mastery to intense feeling----the direct communication of emotion to the viewer.

    (A) facilitates   (B) averts  (C) neutralizes

    (D) implies  (E) represses

    5. While not completely nonplussed by the usually caustic responses from members of the audience, the speaker was nonetheless visibly----by their lively criticism.

    (A) humiliated   (B) discomfited  (C) deluded

    (D) disgraced   (E) tantalized

    6. In eighth-century Japan, people who---- wasteland were rewarded with official ranks as part of an effort to overcome the shortage of----fields.

    (A) conserved.. forested

    (B) reclaimed.. arable

    (C) cultivated.. domestic

    (D) irrigated.. accessible

    (E) located.. desirable

    7. If duty is the natural----of one's ----the course of future events, then people who are power- ful have duty placed on them whether they like it or not.

    (A) correlate.. understanding of

    (B) outgrowth-control over

    (C) determinant.. involvement in

    (D) mitigant.. preoccupation with

    (E) arbiter.. responsibility for

    8. COMA: UNCONSCIOUSNESS::

    (A) amnesia: effort (B) delirium: confusion

    (C) paralysis: pain

    (D) hallucination: numbness

    (E) fever: calm

    9. TOURNIQUET: BLOOD::

    (A) bridge: river  (B) antiseptic: surgery

    (C) dam: water    (D) pressure: air

    (E) bucket: well

    10. FOUNDATION: HOUSE::

    (A) mountain: tunnel  (B) ground: sky

    (C) net: trapeze  (D) pedestal: statue

    (E) pole: banner

    11. PHILATELIST: STAMPS::

    (A) numismatist: coins

    (B) astrologer: predictions

    (C) geneticist: chromosomes

    (D) cartographer: maps

    (E) pawnbroker: jewelry

    12. INSECT: BUTTERFLY::

    (A) perfume: essence

    (B) botany: chrysanthemum

    (C) philosophy: metaphysics

    (D) pitch: black  (E) color: brightness

    13. PERNICIOUS: INJURE::

    (A) officious: deny (B) propitious: conjure

    (C) audacious: allude (D) avaricious: dispel

    (E) disingenuous: mislead

    14. FLAG: VIGOR:

    (A) endure: courage (B) tire: monotony

    (C) question: perception

    (D) waver: resolution  (E) flatter: charm

    15. EMBARRASS: MORTIFY::

    (A) adumbrate: insinuate

    (B) indulge: mollycoddle

    (C) aggrandize: venerate

    (D) relent: deflate (E) upstage: demoralize

    16. DISTILL: PURITY::

    (A) leaven: volume (B) pulverize: fragility

    (C) absorb: brilliance

    (D) homogenize: fluidity

    (E) conduct: charge

    Initially the Vinaver theory that Malory's eight romances, once thought to be fundamentally unified. were in fact eight independent works produced both a sense of relief and an unpleasant shock. Vinaver's the- ory comfortably explained away the apparent contra- dictions of chronology and made each romance inde- pendently satisfying. It was, however, disagreeable to find that what had been thought of as one book was now eight books. Part of this response was the natural reaction to the disturbance of set ideas. Nevertheless, even now, after lengthy consideration of the theory's refined but legitimate observations, one cannot avoid the conclusion that the eight romances are only one work. It is not quite a matter of disagreeing with the theory of independence, but of rejecting its implica- tions: that the romances may be taken in any or no particular order, that they have no cumulative effect, and that they are as separate as the works of a modern novelist.

    17. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) discuss the validity of a hypothesis

    (B) summarize a system of general principles

    (C) propose guidelines for future argument

    (D) stipulate conditions for acceptance of an interpretation

    (E) deny accusations about an apparent contradiction

    18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about Malory's works?

    I. There are meaningful links between and among the romances.

    II. The subtleties of the romances are obscured when they are taken as one work.

    III. Any contradictions in chronology among the romances are less important than their over- all unity.

    (A) I only    (B) III only

    (C) I and III only  (D) II and III only

    (E) I, II, and III

    19. The author of the passage concedes which of the following about the Vinaver theory?

    (A) It gives a clearer understanding of the unity of Malory's romances.

    (B) It demonstrates the irrationality of considering Malory's romances to be unified.

    (C) It establishes acceptable links between Malory's romances and modern novels.

    (D) It unifies earlier and later theories concerning the chronology of Malory's romances.

    (E) It makes valid and subtle comments about Malory's romances.

    20. It can be inferred from the passage that, in evaluating the Vinaver theory, some critics were

    (A) frequently misled by the inconsistencies in Malory's work

    (B) initially biased by previous interpretations of Malory's work

    (C) conceptually displeased by the general interpretation that Vinaver rejected

    (D) generally in agreement with Vinaver's comparisons between Malory and modern novelists

    (E) originally skeptical about Vinaver's early conclusions with respect to modern novels

    We can distinguish three different realms of matter, three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their interactions, and the structures that are formed by them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases and plas- mas. This realm includes all the phenomena of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a rela- tively low order. If these exchanges are below one elec- tron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have "conditional elementarity" because they keep their iden- tity and do not change in any collisions or in other pro- cesses at these low energy exchanges. If one goes to higher energy exchanges, say 104 electron volts, then atoms and molecules will decompose into nuclei and electrons; at this level, the latter particles must be consi- dered as elementary. We find examples of structures and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars.

    The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with phenom- ena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not change. However, if one applies energies of millions of electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary par- ticles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In addi- tion, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe, ener- gies at this level are available in the centers of stars and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into space by a major stellar explosion.

    The third rung of the quantum ladder is the subnu- clear realm. Here we are dealing with energy exchangers of many billions of electron volts. We encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta, or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at subnu- clear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

    21. the primary topic of the passage is which of the following?

    (A) The interaction of the realms on the quantum ladder

    (B) Atomic structures found on Earth, on other planets, and on the surfaces of stars

    (C) Levels of energy that are released in nuclear reactions on Earth and in stars

    (D) Particles and processes found in the atomic, nuclear, and subnuclear realms

    (E) New types of particles occurring in the atomic realm

    22. According to the passage, radioactivity that occurs naturally on Earth is the result of

    (A) the production of particles that have no detectable mass or electric charge

    (B) high energy exchanges on the nuclear level that occurred in an ancient explosion in a star

    (C) processes that occur in the center of the Sun, which emits radiation to the Earth

    (D) phenomena in the atomic realm that cause atoms and molecules to decompose into nuclei and electrons

    (E) high-voltage discharges of electricity that took place in the atmosphere of the Earth shortly after the Earth was formed

    23. The author organizes the passage by

    (A) making distinctions between two groups of par- ticles, those that are elementary and those that are composite

    (B) explaining three methods of transferring energy to atoms and to the smaller particles that constitute atoms

    (C) describing several levels of processes, increasing in energy, and corresponding sets of particles, generally decreasing in size

    (D) putting forth an argument concerning energy levels and then conceding that several qualifi- cations of that argument are necessary

    (E) making several successive refinements of a defi- nition of elementarity on the basis of several groups of experimental results

    24. According to the passage, which of the following can be found in the atomic realm?

    (A) More than one level of energy exchange

    (B) Exactly one elementary particle

    (C) Exactly three kinds of atomic structures

    (D) Three levels on the quantum ladder

    (E) No particles smaller than atoms

    25. According to the author, gluons are not

    (A) considered to be detectable

    (B) produced in nuclear reactions

    (C) encountered in subnuclear energy exchanges

    (D) related to the strong force

    (E) found to be conditionally elementary

    26. At a higher energy level than the subnuclear level described, if such a higher level exists, it can be expected on the basis of the information in the pas- sage that there would probably be

    (A) excited nucleons (B) elementary mesons

    (C) a kind of particle without detectable mass or charge

    (D) exchanges of energy on the order of millions of electron volts

    (E) another set of elementary particles

    27. The passage speaks of particles as having conditional elementarity if they

    (A) remain unchanged at given level of energy exchange

    (B) cannot be decomposed into smaller constituents

    (C) are mathematically simpler than some other set of particles

    (D) release energy at a low level in collisions

    (E) belong to the nuclear level on the quantum ladder

    28. PARTITION:

    (A) unify (B) mollify   (C) nullify

    (D) indemnify   (E) fortify

    29. ABHOR:

    (A) greatly admire (B) promise absolutely

    (C) inspire  (D) credit  (E) improve

    30. TAINTED:

    (A) available (B) strident

    (C) conspicuous  (D) wholesome

    (E) insensible

    31. CARDINAL:

    (A) abstract  (B) elusive   (C) subtle

    (D) minor  (E) miniature

    32. ESTRANGEMENT:

    (A) reconciliation (B) dissemblance

    (C) consolation  (D) chaotic situation

    (E) continuous negotiation

    33. ABATE:

    (A) attach  (B) alter  (C) absent

    (D) assist  (E) augment

    34. DOFF:

    (A) raze  (B) don  (C) ply

    (D) clasp tightly  (E) hide carefully

    35. ERUDITE:

    (A) unsettled  (B) unfettered (C) untalented

    (D) untitled  (E) unlettered

    36. GARRULITY:

    (A) servility   (B) forbearance

    (C) peacefulness  (D) constancy

    (E) taciturnity

    37. SCOTCH:

    (A) entrust   (B) emphasize   (C) encourage

    (D) renovate (E) unfasten

    38. LIBERTINE:

    (A) serf (B) miser  (C) prisoner

    (D) ascetic  (E) authoritarian

    No 5-2  SECTION 5

    Questions 1-6

    Five ships-J, K, L, M, and N-are to be unloaded on 5 consecutive days beginning on Monday and end- ing on Friday according to the following conditions:

    Each ship takes exactly one day to unload.

    K must be unloaded on a day preceding the days M and N are unloaded.

    L cannot be unloaded on a Tuesday.

    M must be the second ship unloaded after J is unloaded.

    1. If M is unloaded on Friday, which of the follow- ing must be true?

    (A) J is unloaded on Wednesday.

    (B) K is unloaded on Tuesday.

    (C) L is unloaded on Monday.

    (D) L is unloaded on Thursday.

    (E) N is unloaded on Thursday.

    2. If K, M, and N are to be unloaded one immedi- ately after the other in that order, the two days on which J can be unloaded are

    (A) Monday and Tuesday

    (B) Monday and Friday

    (C) Tuesday and Wednesday

    (D) Wednesday and Friday

    (E) Thursday and Friday

    3. If L is unloaded on the day immediately after the day J is unloaded, which of the following must be true?

    (A) J is unloaded on Wednesday.

    (B) K is unloaded on Monday.

    (C) L is unloaded on Thursday.

    (D) M is unloaded on Friday.

    (E) N is unloaded on Tuesday.

    4. If J is unloaded on Monday, which of the following must be true?

    (A) L is unloaded before K.

    (B) L is unloaded before M.

    (C) K is unloaded on Tuesday.

    (D) L is unloaded on Thursday.

    (E) N is unloaded on Thursday.

    5. N can be unloaded any day of the week EXCEPT

    (A) Monday   (B) Tuesday

    (C) Wednesday  (D) Thursday

    (E) Friday

    6. On which of the following days can any one of the five ships be unloaded?

    (A) Monday   (B) Tuesday

    (C) Wednesday  (D) Thursday

    (E) Friday

    7. Infection is the biggest threat to the life of a burn patient. The skin, the body's natural arrier against bacteria, is damaged or gone in the burned areas. The bacteria that are a threat are unpredictable in both variety and number. Moreover, those found affecting any one patient may change completely from one day to the next. The standard treatment, therefore, is the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

    Considering only the information given about burn patient in the passage above, which of the follow- ing is most likely to enhance the effectiveness of the standard treatment of a burn patient?

    (A) Keeping the patient in an air-conditioned room until recovery is assured

    (B) Keeping the areas affected by burns as dry as possible

    (C) Continuously monitoring the patient's vital signs with electronic equipment

    (D) Feeding the patient a diet extra rich in calories

    (E) Keeping the patient in a maximally sterile envi- ronment

    8. Dormitories range from two to six stories in height. If a dormitory room is above the second floor, it has a fire escape.

    If the statements above are true, which of the fol- lowing must also be true?

    (A) Second-floor dormitory rooms do not have fire escapes.

    (B) Third-floor dormitory rooms do not have fire escapes.

    (C) Only dormitory rooms above the second floor have fire escapes.

    (D) Fourth-floor dormitory rooms have fire escapes.

    (E) Some two-story dormitories do not have fire escapes.

    9. The garment industry is labor-intensive; the produc- tion of garments requires the employment of a rela- tively large number of people. The auto industry is capital-intensive; a large amount of money is invested in elaborate equipment run by a relatively small number of people. If fringe benefits are not considered, a typical United States garment worker in 1979 earned 46 percent of a typical auto worker's wages.

    Which of the following, if true, is likely to be among the factors that account for the disparity between auto workers' and garment workers' wages?

    (A) There is generally less variation among the wages of garment industry workers than among those of auto industry workers.

    (B) Wage increases in the auto industry have a smaller effect on manufacturers' total costs than do wage increases in the garment industry.

    (C) The fringe benefits that auto makers provide for their employees are more comprehensive than are those provided for garment workers.

    (D) The auto industry faces more competition from companies outside the United States paying low wages than does the garment industry.

    (E) The auto industry employs a larger total number of workers than does the garment industry.

    Questions 10-15

    Exactly twelve books are arranged from left to right on a shelf.

    Of the twelve books, four are small paperback books, two are large paperback books, three are clothbound books, and three are leather-bound books.

    The four small paperback books are next to each other, and the three leather-bound books are next to each other.

    The first (leftmost) book and the twelfth (rightmost) book are paperback books

    10. If the third book is a small paperback book and each large paperback book is next to a leather- bound book, which of the following books must be a large paperback book.

    (A) The first   (B) The second

    (C) The sixth  (D) The eighth

    (E) The eleventh

    11. If the twelfth book is a small paperback book, the fourth book is a leather-bound book, and no cloth- bound book is next to another clothbound book, which of the following books must be a large paperback book?

    (A) The second  (B) The third

    (C) The fifth  (D) The sixth

    (E) The seventh

    12. If the first book is a small paperback book, the clothbound books are next to each other, and the eleventh book is leather bound, which of the fol- lowing books can be a large paperback book?

    (A) The fourth  (B) The fifth (C) The sixth

    (D) The ninth (E) The tenth

    13. If the first book is a large paperback book, the sec- ond book is a small paperback book, and the sev- enth book is a leather-bound book, which of the following can be true?

    (A) The fourth book is a clothbound book.

    (B) The fifth book is a leather-bound book.

    (C) The sixth book is a large paperback book.

    (D) The eighth book is a clothbound book.

    (E) The ninth book is a clothbound book.

    14. If a large paperback book is at each end of the row and a small paperback book is next to a leather bound book, which of the following books can be a clothbound book?

    (A) The fourth  (B) The fifth

    (C) The sixth  (D) The seventh

    (E) The eighth

    15. If a large paperback book is at each end of the row and no clothbound book is next to a small paper- back book, which of the following must be true?

    (A) The second book is a small paperback book.

    (B) The fourth book is a clothbound book.

    (C) The sixth book is a leather-bound book.

    (D) The eighth book is a leather-bound book.

    (E) The tenth book is a clothbound book.

    Questions 16-19

    A plumber and an electrician have been hired to install the necessary plumbing and electrical fixtures in a new house. Each worker has four jobs, and each job takes exactly one day to complete. The workers will work together on four consecutive days, beginning on Mon- day. The work schedule for the plumber's jobs-G, H, I, and J-and for the electrician's jobs-L, M, N, and O-can be arranged at the convenience of each so long as the following conditions are met:

    G and M cannot be done on the same day.

    H and N must be done on the same day.

    I must be done on the day immediately preceding the day on which G is done.

    O must be done on a day preceding the day on which N is done.

    16. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule for the plumber's jobs, beginning on Monday?

    (A) G, H, J, I  (B) H, I, J, G

    (C) H, J, G, I  (D) I, G, J, H

    (E) J, H, G, I

    17. Which of the following jobs CANNOT be scheduled for Monday?

    (A) H (B) I  (C) J  (D) L     (E) O

    18. If H and N are scheduled for Wednesday, which of the following could be true?

    (A) G is scheduled for Thursday.

    (B) J is scheduled for Monday.

    (C) L is scheduled for Monday.

    (D) M is scheduled for Tuesday.

    (E) O is scheduled for Thursday.

    19. If J and M are scheduled for Thursday, which of the following must be true?

    (A) G is scheduled for Monday.

    (B) I is scheduled for Tuesday.

    (C) L is scheduled for Wednesday.

    (D) N is scheduled for Wednesday.

    (E) O is scheduled for Monday.

    Questions 20-22

    A residential subdivision is accessible to vehicular traf- fic only as specified below:

    All eight streets are one-way streets.

    Access to the subdivision is at a single point F.

    Exit from the subdivision is at a single point G.

    The street intersections within the subdivision are W, X, Y, and Z.

    Separate streets run directly

    from F to W,

    from W to X,

    from W to Y,

    from X to Z,

    from X to W,

    from Y to X,

    from Z to Y, and

    from Z to G.

    20. Which of the following describes a possible route from F to G, including each of the intersections on that route?

    (A) F-W-Z-G  (B) F-Y-X-G

    (C) F-W-X-Y-G  (D) F-W-Y-X-G

    (E) F-W-X-Z-G

    21. For which of the following trips are there two alter- native routes that do not have a street in common and do not go outside the subdivision?

    (A) From W to Z  (B) From X to Y

    (C) From X to Z  (D) From Y to W

    (E) From Z to W

    22. If, in traveling from F to G, a vehicle passes through no intersection more than once, which of the following could be, but need not be, a portion of that trip?

    (A) From F to W   (B) From X to W

    (C) From X to Z  (D) From Y to X

    (E) From Z to Y

    23. It was long thought that a now-rare disease of the joints, alkaptonuria, was epidemic in Egypt 2,500 years ago. Evidence came from the high proportion of mummies from that period showing symptoms of the disease. Recently, however, chemical analyses of skeletons have led scientists to propose that the joint damage was actually caused by chemicals used by Egyptian embalmers.

    Which of the following, if true, would additionally weaken the traditional view that alkaptonuria afflicted many Egyptians 2,500 years ago?

    (A) X-rays of the mummies showed shadows that clearly suggested joint damage, and recent inspection of the skeletons has confirmed that hypothesis.

    (B) Although alkaptonuria is a disease that can be inherited, it did not appear in the descendants of the Egyptian population in which the symptoms were found.

    (C) Egyptian embalming methods were highly secret, and scientists are still not certain of the nature of some of the chemicals that were used.

    (D) Possible evidence of alkaptonuria has been pointed out in pictures representing the human figure found on artifacts left by other Middle Eastern cultures of that period.

    (E) Some mummies of that period show no evidence of joint damage at all.

    24. The Census Bureau reported that the median family income, after adjustment for inflation, increased 1.6 percent in 1983. Poverty normally declines when family income goes up, but the national poverty rate remained at its highest level in eighteen years in 1983. The Census Bureau offered two possible expla- nations: the lingering effects of the deep and lengthy 1981-1982 recession, and increases in the number of people living in families headed by women and in the number of adults not living with any relatives. Both groups are likely to be poorer than the popula- tion as a whole.

    Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from this report?

    (A) The national poverty rate has increased steadily over the last eighteen years.

    (B) The national poverty rate will increase when there are lingering effects of an earlier recession.

    (C) The median family income can increase even though the family income of some subgroups within the population declines or fails to increase.

    (D) The category of adults not living with any rela- tives is the most critical group in the determi- nation of whether the economy has improved.

    (E) The median family income is affected more by changes in family patterns than by the extent of expansion or recession of the national economy.

    25. For many people in the United States who are con- cerned about the cost of heating homes and busi- nesses, wood has become an alternative energy source to coal, oil, and gas. Nevertheless, wood will never supply more than a modest fraction of our continuing energy needs.

    Which of the following, if true, does NOT support the claim made in the last sentence in the passage above?

    (A) There are many competing uses for a finite supply of wood, and suppliers give the lum- ber and paper industries a higher priority than they give individual consumers.

    (B) Wood produces thick smoke in burning, and its extensive use in densely populated cities would violate federal antipollution guidelines.

    (C) There are relatively narrow limits to how far wood can be trucked before it becomes more economical to burn the gasoline used for transportation instead of the wood.

    (D) Most apartment dwellers do not have adequate storage space for the amount of wood neces- sary to supply energy for heating.

    (E) Most commercial users of energy are located within range of a wood supply, and two- thirds of United States homes are located outside of metropolitan areas.

    No. 5-3  SECTION 6

    Questions 1-5

    A florist has exactly seven varieties of flowers- P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V-from which she must select combinations of exactly five varieties with which to make flower arrangements. Any combination of the five varieties that conforms to all of the following con- ditions is acceptable:

    If P is used in an arrangement, T cannot be used in that arrangement.

    If Q is used in an arrangement, U must also be used in that arrangement.

    If R is used in an arrangement, T must also be used in that arrangement.

    1. Which of the following is an acceptable combina- tion of varieties that the florist can select for an arrangement?

    (A) P, Q, S, T, U  (B) P, Q, R, U, V

    (C) P, S, T, U, V  (D) Q, R, S, U, V

    (E) Q, R, S, T, U

    2. If the florist selects variety R to be included in an arrangement, which of the following must be true of that arrangement?

    (A) P is not used.  (B) U is not used.

    (C) Q is used.  (D) S is used.  (E) V is used.

    3. If variety P is used in an arrangement, which of the following CANNOT be used in that arrange- ment?

    (A) Q   (B) R   (C) S   (D) U  (E) V

    4. If the florist does not select variety V for an arrangement, which of the following also CAN- NOT be selected?

    (A) P (B) Q  (C) R   (D) S  (E) T

    5. Which of the following substitutions can the florist always make without violating the conditions gov- erning flower combination, provided the variety mentioned first was not, and the variety mentioned second was, originally going to be used in the arrangement concerned?

    (A) P for R  (B) Q for U    C) R for T

    (D) S for V  (E) V for T

    6. Currently, the number of first-time admissions of individuals diagnosed as manic-depressives to hos- pitals in Great Britain exceeds by nine times the number of admissions of such patients to public and private hospitals in the United States, even though the population size of the United States is many times that of Great Britain.

    Which of the following, if true, would be most use- ful to an attempt to explain the situation described above?

    (A) The term manic-depressive refers to a wider range of mentally ill patients in Great Britain than it does in the United States.

    (B) The admission rate in the United States includes those individuals who visit clinics for the first time as well as those who are admitted directly to hospitals.

    (C) A small percentage of patients diagnosed as manic-depressive in Great Britain are admit- ted to private nursing homes rather than hospitals.

    (D) The variety of training institutions in psychol- ogy in the United States is greater than in Great Britain, reflecting the variety of schools of psychology that have developed in the United States.

    (E) Seeking professional assistance for mental health problems no longer carries a social stigma in the United States, as it once did.

    7. Some soil scientists have asserted that decaying matter on the forest floor is a far greater source of the acidity in mountain lakes than is the acid rain that falls on these lakes. Therefore, they contend, reducing acid rain will not significantly reduce the acidity levels of mountain lakes.

    Which of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

    (A) It is natural for mountain lakes to have acidity levels higher than those of other lakes.

    (B) The harmful effects of increased acidity levels in lakes have been greatly underestimated.

    (C) Acid rain is found in urban and heavily indus- trialized regions of the country.

    (D) There is much disagreement among soil scien- tists about the causes of acid rain.

    (E) While plant life remains, acid rain significantly increases the amount of decaying organic matter in natural environments.

    8. Unlike other forms of narrative art, a play, to be successful, must give pleasure to its immediate audi- ence by reflecting the concerns and values of that audience. A novel can achieve success over months or even years, but a play must be a hit or perish. Successful drama of the Restoration period, there- fore, is a good index to the typical tastes and atti- tudes of its time.

    The author of the passage above assumes that

    (A) plays written for Restoration audiences do not appeal to modern audiences

    (B) plays are superior to novels as a form of narrative art

    (C) Restoration audiences were representative of the whole population of their time

    (D) playgoers and novel readers are typically distinct and exclusive groups

    (E) Restoration drama achieved popular success at the expense of critical success

    Questions 9-13

    A game has been invented that involves a player's direct- ing a ball through four arches-1, 2, 3, and 4 in that order. On a certain day, the game is to be played on a circular lawn that has four major landmarks located around the border of the lawn at the points of the com- pass: to the north a lilac bush, to the east an oak tree, to the south a rock garden, and to the west a small pond. The arches can be placed on the lawn in any numerical arrangement as long as the following conditions are met:

    The four arches must be positioned at equal dis- tances around the border of the lawn, and each arch must stand on the border midway between two adjacent landmarks.

    The lilac bush must be one of the landmarks that stand nearest to arch 1.

    The rock garden must be one of the landmarks that stand nearest to arch 2.

    The pond must be one of the landmarks that stand nearest to arch 4.

    The pond cannot be one of the landmarks that stand nearest to arch 1.

    9. Which of the following is a possible arrangement of the four arches as they are positioned in relation to the four landmarks?

    (A) Lilac bush -1-oak tree -3- rock garden -4-pond -2- lilac bush

    (B) Lilac bush -1- oak tree -3- rock garden -2-pond -4- lilac bush

    (C) Lilac bush -1- oak tree -4- rock garden -2-pond -3- lilac bush

    (D) Lilac bush -3- oak tree -2- rock garden -4-pond -1- lilac bush

    (E) Lilac bush -3- oak tree -1- rock garden -2-pond -4- lilac bush

    10. Which of the arches can be placed directly between the rock garden and the pond?

    (A) 2 but not 1, 3, or 4

    (B) 3 but not 1, 2, or 4

    (C) 2 or 3 but not 1 or 4

    (D) 2 or 4 but not 1 or 3

    (E) 2, 3, or 4 but not 1

    11. If arch 3 is one of the arches nearest to the rock garden, which of the following must be true?

    (A) Arch 2 is one of the arches nearest to the oak tree.

    (B) Arch 2 is one of the arches nearest to the pond.

    (C) Arch 3 is one of the arches nearest to the oak tree.

    (D) Arch 4 is one of the arches nearest to the lilac bush.

    (E) Arch 4 is one of the arches nearest to the rock garden.

    12. If arch 3 is separated from arch 4 by exactly one landmark, any of the following can be true EXCEPT:

    (A) Arch 2 is one of the arches nearest to the pond.

    (B) Arch 3 is one of the arches nearest to the rock garden.

    (C) Arch 3 is one of the arches nearest to the pond.

    (D) Arch 4 is one of the arches nearest to the lilac bush.

    (E) Arch 4 is one of the arches nearest to the rock garden.

    13. Which of the following placements of one of the arches allows more than one possible arrangement of the arches on the lawn?

    (A) Arch 2 between the rock garden and the pond

    (B) Arch 3 between the lilac bush and the pond

    (C) Arch 3 between the rock garden and the pond

    (D) Arch 4 between the rock garden and the pond

    (E) Arch 4 between the lilac bush and the pond

    Questions 14-18

    P, Q, R, S, T are the computers in the five overseas offices of a large multinational corporation. The com- puters are linked in an unusual manner in order to provide increased security for the data in certain offices. Data can be directly requested only from:

    P by Q

    P by T

    Q by P

    R by P

    S by Q

    S by T

    T by R

    If a computer can directly request data from another computer, then it can also pass on requests for data to that other computer.

    14. Which of the following computers CANNOT request data from any of the other four computers?

    (A) P (B) Q   (C) R (D) S  (E) T

    15.Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of computers that can request data from S through exactly one other computer?

    (A) P and Q  (B) P and R (C) Q and R

    (D) R and T  (E) P, Q, and T

    16. Which of the following requests for data requires the greatest number of intervening requests for data?

    (A) A request by P for data from Q

    (B) A request by Q for data from R

    (C) A request by Q for data from T

    (D) A request by R for data from P

    (E) A request by R for data from S

    17. If computers Q, R, S, and T are the only ones operating, which of the following requests for data can be made, either directly or through one or more of the other computers?

    (A) A request by Q for data from T

    (B) A request by T for data from R

    (C) A request by S for data from Q

    (D) A request by R for data from Q

    (E) A request by R for data from S

    18. If computers P, R, S, and T are the only ones operating, which of the following request for data can be made NEITHER directly NOR through exactly one of the other operating computers?

    (A) A request by P for data from S

    (B) A request by P for data from T

    (C) A request by P for data from R

    (D) A request by R for data from S

    (E) A request by T for data from S

    Questions 19-22

    A map is being prepared that will represent the follow- ing seven provinces of a certain country: Gusaya, Isto- ria, Jacaranda, Luna, Praz, Serenia, and Venotia. Gusaya has common borders with all of the other six provinces on the map except Jacaranda. Istoria has common borders with exactly four other provinces-Gusaya, Jacaranda, Praz, and Venotia. Jacaranda has common borders with exactly two other provinces-Istoria and Praz. Luna has common borders with exactly two other provinces-Gusaya and Venotia. Praz has common borders with exactly three other provinces-Gusaya, Istoria, and Jacaranda. Serenia has a common border only with Gusaya. Venotia has common borders with exactly three other provinces-Gusaya, Istoria, and Luna.

    Exactly six colors-gold, jade, olive, red, silver, and white-will be used in representing the seven provinces. Each color will be used at least once. Each province will be one solid color on the map. The following restric- tions apply to the map's colors: No province can be the same color as any province bordering on it. Jade and olive cannot be used for provinces border- ing on each other. Silver and white cannot be used for provinces bor- dering on each other. Gusaya must be red. Istoria must be jade.

    19. Which of the following provinces can NEITHER be red NOR be jade on this map?

    (A) Istoria   (B) Jacaranda  (C) Luna

    (D) Praz   (E) Serenia

    20. Which of the following provinces could be olive on this map?

    (A) Gusaya  (B) Jacaranda   (C) Praz

    (D) Serenia  (E) Venotia

    21. If Venotia and Jacaranda are white on the map, Serenia must be

    (A) gold (B) jade (C) olive   (D) silver

    (E) white

    22. If Serenia is gold, which of the following provinces must be olive?

    (A) Istoria   (B) Jacaranda (C) Luna

    (D) Praz   (E) Venotia

    23. It is important to teach students to use computers effectively. Therefore, students should be taught computer programming in school.

    Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?

    (A) Only people who use computers effectively are skilled at computer programming.

    (B) Only people skilled at computer programming use computers effectively.

    (C) Some people who use computers effectively cannot write computer programs.

    (D) Some schools teach computer programming more effectively than others.

    (E) Most people who are able to program computers use computers effectively.

    24. Butterfat gets its yellowish color from carotene, the fat-soluble vitamin A precursor that is also responsible for the color of carrots. Not all butter- fat, however, is equally yellow. Some breeds of cows are more efficient than others at converting carotene to the colorless vitamin A.

    If butter made from the milk of holstein cows is much paler than that made from the milk of jersey or guernsey cows, then the facts above suggest that

    (A) there is less butterfat in the milk of holsteins than in the milk of jerseys or guernseys

    (B) there is more vitamin A in the butterfat of holsteins than in the butterfat of jerseys or guernseys

    (C) there is more carotene in the butterfat of holsteins than in the butterfat of jerseys or guernseys

    (D) holsteins are less efficient converters of carotene than are jersyes or guernseys

    (E) the carotene in the milk of holsteins is less fat- soluble than the carotene in the milk of jerseys or guernseys

    25. X melts at a higher temperature than P melts. Y melts at a lower temperature than P melts, but at a higher temperature than Q melts.

    If the statements above are true, it can be con- cluded with certainty that S melts at a higher tem- perature than Y melts if one knows in addition that

    (A) Q and P melt at a higher temperature than S melts

    (B) X melts at a higher temperature than S melts

    (C) P melts at a lower temperature than S melts

    (D) Q melts at the same temperature that S melts

    (E) S melts at a higher temperature than Q melts

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