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GRE北美试题16

2006-01-23 00:00

    No.3-3 section 1

    1. Stress is experienced when an individual feels that the ---- of the environment ---- that individual's resources for handling them.

    (A) circumstances.. intensify

    (B) details.. exclude

    (C) demands.. exceed

    (D) facets.. imply

    (E) benefits.. reveal

    2. To compensate for the substantial decline in the availability of fossil fuels in future years, we will have to provide at least ---- alternative energy source.

    (A) an anticipated

    (B) an official

    (C) an equivalent

    (D) a derivative

    (E) a redundant

    3. Students of the Great Crash of 1929 have never understood why even the most informed observers did not recognize and heed the ---- economic danger signals that in ---- seem so apparent.

    (A) obvious.. combination

    (B) early.. conclusion

    (C) direct.. application

    (D) future.. potential

    (E) prior.. retrospect

    4. While admitting that the risks incurred by use of the insecticide were not ----, the manufac- turer's spokesperson argued that effective ---- were simply not available.

    (A) inconsequential.. substitutes

    (B) unusual.. alternatives

    (C) increasing.. procedures

    (D) indeterminable.. safeguards

    (E) proven.. antidotes

    5. Because time in India is conceived statically rather than dynamically, Indian languages emphasize nouns rather than verbs, since nouns express the more ---- aspects of a thing.

    (A) paradoxical

    (B) prevalent

    (C) temporal

    (D) successive

    (E) stable.

    6. The essence of belief is the establishment of

   ----; different beliefs are distinguishable by the

    different modes of action to which they give rise.

    (A) love

    (B) practice

    (C) trust

    (D) commitments

    (E) allegiances

    7. The simplicity of the theory-its main attrac- tion -is also its-, for only by ----the assumptions of the theory is it possible to explain the most recent observations made by researchers.

    (A) liability.. accepting

    (B) virtue.. qualifying

    (C) downfall.. considering

    (D) glory.. rejecting

    (E) undoing.. supplementing

    Directions: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

    8. CATCH: FISH::

    (A) vineyard: wine

    (B) drove: sheep

    (C) herd: elk

    (D) harvest: grain

    (E) gaggle: geese

    9. CURATORS: PAINTINGS::

    (A) writers: plays

    (B) teachers: schools

    (C) clergy: churches

    (D) librarians: books

    (E) police: neighborhoods

    10. METEOROLOGY: WEATHER::

    (A) astronomy: physics

    (B) gerontology: heredity

    (C) pedagogy: textbooks

    (D) pathology: disease

    (E) anthropology: fossils

    11. PUN: JOKE::

    (A)owner: pet

    (B) termite: insect

    (C) child: adult

    (D) pint: quart

    (E) sand: beach

    12. PLAIN: AUSTERE:

    (A) neutral: indifferent

    (B) clean: sterile

    (C) alone: gloomy

    (D) arid: barren

    (E) fluent: talkative

    13. PROTOCOL: BLUNDER::

    (A) diagnosis: prevention

    (B) etiquette: behavior

    (C) bumper: damage

    (D) bandage: accident

    (E) audit: verification

    14. ASTROLABE: NAUTICAL::

    (A) colander: culinary

    (B) compass: mechanical

    (C) formula: chemical

    (D) timbre: musical

    (E) strategy: military

    15. ALACRITY: APATHETIC::

    (A) temerity: timid

    (B) tenacity: eager

    (C) candor: bungling

    (D) compliance: deft

    (E) despotism: arrogant

    16. FLOUT: DISREGARD::

    (A) taunt: challenge

    (B) protest: overrule

    (C) revolt: secede

    (D) clamor: argue

    (E) harass: badger

    Although pathogenic organisms constantly alight on the skin, they find it a very unfavor- able environment and, in the absence of injury, have great difficulty colonizing it. This "self- (5) sterilizing" capacity of the skin results from the tendency of all well-developed ecosystems toward homeostasis, or the maintenance of the status quo.

    Species that typically live in soil water, and (10)elsewhere rarely multiply on the skin. Un- damaged skin is also unfavorable to most human pathogens. The skin is too acid and too arid for some species. The constant shedding of the surface skin layers further hinders the establishment of invaders. The most interesting (15)defense mechanism, however, results from the metabolic activities of the resident flora. Unsaturated fatty acids, an important com- ponent of the lipids in sebum collected from the skin surface inhibit the growth of several bac- (20)terial and fungal cutaneous pathogens. These acids are a metabolic product of certain gram- positive members of the cutaneous community, which break down the more complex lipids in freshly secreted sebum.

    17. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) offer an analysis of metabolic processes

    (B) detail the ways in which bacteria and fungi can be inhibited

    (C) describe mechanisms by which the skin protects itself against pathogens

    (D) analyze the methods whereby biological systems maintain the status quo

    (E) provide a specific example of the skin's basic defense against pathogens

    18. The "resident flora" mentioned in line 16 refer to

    (A) "Unsaturated fatty acids" (line 17)

    (B) "sebum collected from the skin surface" (lines 18-19)

    (C) "bacterial and fungal cutaneous pathogens" (lines 19-20)

    (D) "certain gram-positive members of the cutaneous community" (lines 21-22)

    (E) "more complex lipids" (line 23)

    19. Among the natural defense of the skin against pathogenic organisms are all of the following EXCEPT the

    (A) dryness of the skin

    (B) acidity of the skin

    (C) tendency of the pathogens toward homeostasis

    (D) shedding of surface layers of the skin

    (E) metabolic breakdown of lipids

    20. The author presents her material in which of the following ways?

    (A) Stating a problem and then supplying a solution

    (B) Presenting a phenomenon and then analyzing reasons for it

    (C) Providing information and then drawing a conclusion from it

    (D) Making a general statement and then arguing by analogy

    (E) Making an inference and then developing it by illustration

    "Masterpieces are dumb." wrote Flaubert. They have a tranquil aspect like the very products of nature, like large animals and mountains. He might have been thinking of (5) War and Peace, that vast, silent work, un- fathomable and simple, provoking endless questions through the majesty of its being. Tolstoi's simplicity is "overpowering, says the critic Bayley. "disconcerting" because it comes (10)from "his casual assumption that the world is as he sees it" Like other nineteenth-century Russian writers he is "impressive" because he "means what he says." but he stands apart from all others and from most Western writers in his (15)identity with life, which is so complete as to make us forget he is an artist. He is the center of his work, but his egocentricity is of a special kind, Goethe, for example, says Bayley, "cared for nothing but himself. Tolstoi was nothing but (20) himself."

    For all his varied modes of writing and the multiplicity of characters in his fiction, Tolstoi and his work are of a piece. The famous "conversion" of his middle years, movingly (25)recounted in his Confession, was a culmination of his early spiritual life, not a departure from it. The apparently fundamental changes that led from epic narrative to dogmatic parable, from a joyous, buoyant attitude toward life to pessi- (30)mism and cynicism, from War and Peace to The Kreuler Sonata, came from the same restless, impressionable depths of an independent spirit yearning to get at the truth of its experience. "Truth is my hero," wrote Tolstoi in his youth, (35)reporting the fighting in Sebastopol. Truth remained his hero-his own, not others' truth. Others were awed by Napoleon, believed that a single man could change the destinies of nations, adhered to meaningless rituals, formed their (40)tastes on established cannons of art. Tolstoi reversed all preconceptions; and in every rever- sal he overthrew the "system," the "machine," the externally ordained belief, the conventional behavior in favor of unsystematic, impulsive life, (45)of inward motivation and the solutions of independent thought.

    In his work the artificial and the genuine are always exhibited in dramatic opposition the supposedly great Napoleon and the truly great, (50)unregarded little Captain Tushin, or Nicholas Rostov's actual experience in battle and his later account of it. The simple is always pitted against the elaborate, knowledge gained from observa- tion against assertions of borrowed faiths. (55)Tolstoi's magical simplicity is a product of these tensions' his work is a record of the questions he put to himself and of the answers he found in his search. The greatest characters of his fiction exemplify this search, and their happi- (60)ness depends on the measure of their answers. Tolstoi wanted happiness, but only hard-won happiness, that emotional fulfillment and intellectual clarity which could come only as the prize of all-consuming effort. He scorned lesser satisfactions.

    21. Which of the following best characterizes the author's attitude toward Tolstoi?

    (A) She deprecates the cynicism of his later works.

    (B) She finds his theatricality artificial.

    (C) She admires his wholehearted sincerity.

    (D) She thinks his inconsistency disturbing.

    (E) She respects his devotion to orthodoxy.

    22. Which of the following best paraphrases Flaubert's statement quoted in lines 1-4?

    (A) Masterpieces seem ordinary and unremark- able from the perspective of a later age.

    (B) Great works of art do not explain them- selves to us any more than natural objects do.

    (C) Important works of art take their place in the pageant of history because of their uniqueness

    (D) The most important aspects of good art are the orderliness and tranquility it reflects.

    (E) Masterpieces which are of enduring value represent the forces of nature.

    23. The author quotes from Bayley (lines 8-20) to show that

    (A) although Tolstoi observes and interprets life, he maintains no self-conscious distance from his experience

    (B) the realism of Tolstoi's work gives the illusion that his novels are reports of actual events

    (C) unfortunately, Tolstoi is unaware of his own limitations, though he is sincere in his attempt to describe experience

    (D) although Tolstoi works casually and makes unwarranted assumptions, his work has an inexplicable appearance of truth

    (E) Folstoi's personal perspective makes his work almost unintelligible to the majority of his readers

    24. The author states that Tolstoi's conversion represented

    (A) a radical renunciation of the world

    (B) the rejection of avant-garde ideas

    (C) the natural outcome of his earlier beliefs

    (D) the acceptance of a religion he had earlier rejected

    (E) a fundamental change in his writing style

    25. According to the passage, Tolsto's response to the accepted intellectual and artistic values of his time was to

    (A) select the most valid from among them

    (B) combine opposing viewpoints into a new doctrine

    (C) reject the claims of religion in order to serve his art

    (D) subvert them in order to defend a new political viewpoint

    (E) upset them in order to be faithful to his experience

    26. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of War and Peace?

    (A) It belongs to an early period of Tolstoi's work.

    (B) It incorporates a polemin against the disorderliness of Russian life.

    (C) It has a simple structural outline.

    (D) It is a work that reflects on ironic view of life.

    (E) It conforms to the standard of aesthetic refinement favored by Tolstoi's contemporaries.

    27. According to the passage, the explanation of Tolstoi's "magical simplicity" (line 55) lies partially in his

    (A) remarkable power of observation and his facility in exact description

    (B) persistent disregard for conventional restraints together with his great energy

    (C) unusual ability to reduce the description of complex situations to a few words

    (D) abiding hatred of religious doctrine and preference for the new scientism

    (E) continuing attempt to represent the natural in opposition to the pretentious

    28. DETERIORATION:

    (A) imitation

    (B) impression

    (C) improvement

    (D) impropriety

    (E) imbalance

    29. RETARD:

    (A) redirect

    (B) release

    (C) smooth over

    (D) speed up

    (E) speak for

    30. PRISTINE:

    (A) corrupted by civilization

    (B) acquired by stealth

    (C) destroyed by adversity

    (D) established by tradition

    (E) proved by experimentation

    31. ENIGMATIC:

    (A) stirred by emotion

    (B) free of ambiguity

    (C) fraught with danger

    (D) held in esteem

    (E) laden with guilt

    32. FERVID:

    (A) restrained

    (B) unexpected

    (C) discouraged

    (D) undistinguished

    (E) stubborn

    33. ASCETICISM:

    (A) condemnation

    (B) craving

    (C) indulgence

    (D) assessment

    (E) sympathy

    34. MELLIFLUOUS:

    (A) diaphanous

    (B) munificent

    (C) cacophonous

    (D) stentorian

    (E) impervious

    35. CALUMNIATE:

    (A) follow

    (B) familiarize

    (C) rejuvenate

    (D) vindicate

    (E) supplant

    36. CONFORM:

    (A) challenge

    (B) ignore

    (C) be strong

    (D) not hew to

    (E) not vie with

    37. SLOTH:

    (A) intelligence

    (B) secrecy

    (C) neatness

    (D) elegance

    (E) industry

    38. OSSIFY:

    (A) create consensus

    (B) placate critics

    (C) reassemble fragments

    (D) transcend conventions

    (E) overlook problems

    section 2

    Questions 1-4

    Six historians-K, L, M, N, O, and P-are each to present a paper at a one-day conference. Three papers will be presented in the morning session before the lunch break; the other three will be presented in the afternoon session, which follows the lunch break. The scheduling of presentations is subject to the following conditions:

    L's presentation must immediately precede M's presentation; their presentations cannot be separated by the lunch break; N must be either the first or the last in the order of presenters.

    1. If M is to be fifth in the order of presenters, then L must be

    (A) first

    (B) second

    (C) third

    (D) fourth

    (E) sixth

    2. L could be scheduled for any of the following places in the order of presenters EXCEPT

    (A) first

    (B) second

    (C) third

    (D) fourth

    (E) fifth

    3. If P's presentation must immediately follow N's presentation, M could be scheduled for which of the following places in the order of presenters?

    (A) First

    (B) Second

    (C) Third

    (D) Fourth

    (E) Fifth

    4. If P and O are fifth and sixth, respectively, in the order of presenters, which of the following must be true?

    (A) K is first in the order of presenters.

    (B) K is third in the order of presenters.

    (C) K is fourth in the order of presenters.

    (D) L is first in the order of presenters.

    (E) M is fourth in the order of presenters.

    5. Since the recent takeover of publishing concerns by communications-entertainment firms, management new methods have increased the financial profits of commercial publishing, at the price of narrowing the range of books made available to the public and by catering to the vulgar tastes of the new buyers of books. Business has boomed, but the losers are the majority of authors or aspiring writers, and all discriminating readers.

    If the statement above is true, which of the following can also be inferred to be true?

    (A) Profitable business practices are relatively new in the publishing industry.

    (B) Commercial publishing is now catering to a different community of book readers than the book business has served in the past.

    (C) The new profits from methods introduced by communications-entertainment management will encourage writers of literary talent to persevere against the odds.

    (D) The narrowed range of books coming to the public is directed toward a more discriminating audience.

    (E) The public is unaware of the trend in the publishing industry to specialize in books that produce blockbuster sales.

    6. It often happens that some crisis or opportunity induces people to find a practical use for things that originally had no serious purpose. As an example of this principle, consider the dolls and mannequins, programmed to move and built for the delight of the wealthy in the eighteenth century, which were forerunners of the modern computer, likewise, it is almost certain that the first domesticated animals were pets. Domestication of animals seems to have arisen as an amusement long before it had practical application.

    Which of the following, if true provides another example in support of the principle mentioned above?

    (A) The discovery of America was a by product of the search for ginger, cloves, pepper, and cinnamon.

    (B) Children's games often imitate adult work .

    (C) The spyglass was simply a source of diversion until its commercial and scientific potential was recognized, and its power of magnification suitably improved.

    (D) In certain cultures horses are used exclusively for pleasure, and never for work, even though in those culture people are forced to work arduously in the absence of laboring animals.

    (E) The persons who constructed moving dolls and mannequins in the eighteenth century were also clockmakers.

    7. Pharmaceutical firms are now producing analogues (that is, chemical variants) of endorphins, peptides thought to carry messages that, when transmitted among brain cells, result in pain relief. The firms claim that the analogues, when injected into the bloodstream, will provide effective and long-lasting pain relief by augmenting the action of peptides already found in the brain.

    The claim of the pharmaceutical firms would be weakened if it were true that

    (A) endorphins remain active in the brain for longer periods of time than do the brain's other types of neurotransmitters

    (B) some peptides have been found in parts of the body other than the brain, such as the alimentary canal and the skin

    (C) analogues of peptides are easier and less expensive to produce in the laboratory than the peptides themselves

    (D) analogues of the peptides that are found naturally in the body are often filtered from the blood before the blood circulates in the brain

    (E) endorphins interact chemically both with other naturally occurring peptides and with the brain's other neurotransmitters

    Questions 8-11

    In a biologist's laboratory, there are seven unlabele jars. The biologist knows that each of the jars contains dormant bacteria of one of the following types: T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. She also knows that no two of the jars contain the same type of bacteria. She wishes to identify accurately the type of bacteria in each jar by placing samples of the bacteria into various growth mediums and observing their growth She has only the following information to use in interpreting the results:

    When placed in a suitable medium, dormant bacteria will grow.

    Types U and V each grow only in medium 1.

    Type Y grows only in medium 2.

    Type X grows only in medium 3.

    Type W grows both in medium 1 and in medium 3 but in no other medium.

    Type T and Z each grow both in medium 2 and in medium 3 but in no other medium.

    8. If the biologist places samples of bacteria from one of the jars into mediums 1, 2, and 3 and finds that the bacteria grow only in medium 3, she can properly conclude which of the following?

    (A) The bacteria are of type X.

    (B) The bacteria are of type W.

    (C) The bacteria are of either type W or type X, but which of the two they are cannot be determined without additional information.

    (D) The bacteria are of type T, or type X, or type Y, but which of the three they are cannot be determined without additional information.

    (E) The bacteria are of type W, or type X, or type Z, but which of the three they are cannot be determined without additional information.

    9. The biologist CANNOT accurately differentiate which of the following pairs of bacteria types without obtaining information

    (A) T and Z

    (B) V and W

    (C) W and Y

    (D) W and X

    (E) X and Y

    10. Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the types of bacteria that the biologist could identify by placing samples of the bacteria into the mediums and observing their growth?

    (A) T, U, W

    (B) T, W, Z

    (C) W, X, Y

    (D) W, Y, Z

    (E) X, Y, Z

    11. All seven types of bacteria could be accurately identified if the biologist obtained additional information that allowed her to identify

    (A) U and W

    (B) U and Z

    (C) X and T

    (D) X and W

    (E) Y and Z

    Questions 12-17

    Five competiors-J. K. L. M and N-have completed the first event of a three-event competition, with K taking first place, L second place, M third place, J fourth place, and N last place.

    The scoring for the three-event competitions is as follows:

    The winner of the first event receives 5 points; the second-place finisher, 4 points; the third-place finisher, 3 points; the fourth-place finisher, 2 points; and the last- place finisher, 1 point.

    The point values for the second and third event are calculated in the same manner, but the score for the second event is counted twice in the total point standings for the entire competition.

    No ties are possible in the individual events. although there can be ties in the total point standing.

    The competitor with the most points after the completion of all three events wins the completion

    12. If K finishes third in the second event, the highest possible winning score for the entire competition is

    (A) 20

    (B) 19

    (C) 18

    (D) 17

    (E) 16

    13. If M and N have the same number of points after the completion of the second event, which of the following CANNOT be true of the outcome of the second event?

    (A) J finished higher than M.

    (B) K finished higher than M.

    (C) M finished second and N finished first.

    (D) M finished third and N finished second.

    (E) M finished fourth and N finished second.

    14. If K and M are in a two-way tie for first in total point standings following the completion of the second event, they must each have how many points?

    (A) 11

    (B) 12

    (C) 13

    (D) 14

    (E) 15

    15. If, in the second event, the competitors finish in the same order that they did in the first event, which of the following could be a possible outcome of the entire competition?

    (A) J finishes second in total point standings.

    (B) K finishes third in total point standings.

    (C) L finishes third in total point standings.

    (D) M finishes first in total point standings.

    (E) N finishes third in total point standings.

    16. If L finishes higher than third in the second event, L's position in the total point standings for the entire competition will be

    (A) alone in first place

    (B) in a tie for first place

    (C) in a tie for second place

    (D) no higher than second place

    (E) no lower than third place

    17. If L finishes first in the second event, the highest that N can finish in the total point standings for the entire competition is

    (A) first

    (B) second

    (C) third

    (D) fourth

    (E) last

    Questions 18-22

    In a parking lot there are six parking spaces in a row, numbered 1 through 6 consecutively. Exactly five cars of five different colors-blue, green, red, silver, and tan-are to be parked in the spaces, one car to a space, according to the following conditions:

    The red car must be parked in 3.

    The blue car must be parked in a space next to the space in which the tan car is parked.

    The green car cannot be parked in a space next to the space in which the silver car is parked.

    18. If the tan car is parked in 2, which of the following must be true?

    (A) The blue car is parked in a space next to the space in which the silver car is parked.

    (B) The silver car is parked in a space next to the space in which the red car is parked.

    (C) The green car is parked in a space next to the space in which the blue car is parked.

    (D) The green car is parked in 6.

    (E) None of the cars is parked in 5.

    19. The silver car could be parked in any of the following spaces EXCEPT

    (A) 1

    (B) 2

    (C) 4

    (D) 5

    (E) 6

    20. If the green car is parked in 2, none of the cars can be parked in

    (A) 1

    (B) 3

    (C) 4

    (D) 5

    (E) 6

    21. Which of the following must be true of any acceptable parking arrangement?

    (A) There is an empty space next to the space in which the green car is parked.

    (B) There is an empty space next to the space in which the tan car is parked.

    (C) Either the blue car or the tan car is parked in a space next to 3.

    (D) One of the cars is parked in 2.

    (E) One of the cars is parked in 6.

    22. If the tan car is parked in 1, how many acceptable parking arrangements are there for the five cars?

    (A) 1

    (B) 2

    (C) 3

    (D) 4

    (E) 5

    23. Biochemists select for experimental study those types of organisms that are most suitable for solving the scientific problems that are of current interest to them. For this reason, it was not until recently that biochemists began to give considerable, attention to the biochemistry of insects.

    In the passage above, the author implies that

    (A) there was a recent shift in the scientific problems of interest to biochemists

    (B) scientists have recently made new contributions to knowledge by studying the biochemistry of insects

    (C) biochemists recently changed their primary criterion for selecting the type of organism to be studied

    (D) there was a recent increase in the number of individual organisms that biochemists use in their experiments

    (E) biochemists would today have less interest in studying insects if they had given more attention in the past to the biochemistry of insects

    24. If Wanda visits Albuquerque on a trip, she will also visit Santa Fe, Phoenix, and Tucson on that trip.

    If the statement above is true, which of the following statements must also be true?

    (A) If Wanda visits Santa Fe, Phoenix, and Tucson on a trip, she will also visit Albuquerque on that trip.

    (B) If Wanda visits Phoenix and Tucson on a trip, she will also visit Santa Fe on that trip.

    (C) If Wanda visits Tucson on a trip, she will also visit Phoenix on that trip.

    (D) If Wanda does not visit Tucson on a trip, she will not visit Santa Fe on that trip.

    (E) If Wanda does not visit Phoenix on a trip she will not visit Albuquerque on that trip.

    25. In a certain code, the digits from 0 to 9 inclusive are each represented by a different letter of the alphabet and each letter always represents the same digit, if the sum

    ALMA

    +  T I A

    JUAN

    holds when expressed in digits, all of the following can properly by inferred EXCEPT:

    (A) A cannot be 0.

    (B) A must be less than 5.

    (C) N must be even.

    (D) L+T must be greater than 8.

    (E) J must be greater than A by 1.

    section 4

    1. Our young people, whose ---- sensitivities have not yet become ----, have a purer and more immediate response than we do to our environment.

    (A) native.. excited

    (B) keen.. calloused

    (C) dull.. numbed

    (D) impartial.. objective

    (E) sophisticated.. perceptive

    2. The repudiation of Puritanism in seventeenth- century England expressed itself not only in retaliatory laws to ---- Puritans, but also in a general attitude of ---- for Puritans.

    (A) restrict.. contempt

    (B) regulate.. regard

    (C) benefit.. affection

    (D) repress.. respect

    (E) evade.. hatred

    3. It is a great ---- to be able to transfer useful genes with as little extra gene material as possible, because the donor's genome may contain, in addition to desirable genes, many genes with ---- effects.

    (A) misfortune.. unpredictable

    (B) disappointment .. superfluous

    (C) convenience.. exquisite

    (D) accomplishment.. profound

    (E) advantage.. deleterious

    4. Because it has no distinct and recognizable typo- graphical form and few recurring narrative con- ventions, the novel is, of all literary genres, the least susceptible to ----.

    (A) misuse

    (B) imprecision

    (C) inquiry

    (D) definition

    (E) innovation

    5. The brittle fronds of the Boston fern break easily and become brown, so that the overall appearance of the plant is ---- unless the broken fronds are cut off.

    (A) admired

    (B) overrated

    (C) disparaged

    (D) blunted

    (E) ruined

    6. There is no necessary intrinsic connection between a word and the thing it refers to, the relationship is purely ----.

    (A) conventional

    (B) consistent

    (C) strategic

    (D) illustrative

    (E) problematical

    7. That the Third Battalion's fifty-percent casualty rate transformed its assault on Hill 306 from a brilliant stratagem into a debacle does not ---- eyewitness reports of its commander's extra- ordinary ---- in deploying his forces.

    (A) justify.. rapidity

    (B) gainsay.. cleverness

    (C) corroborate.. determination

    (D) invalidate.. brutality

    (E) underscore.. ineptitude

    8. LIQUID: VALVE::

    (A) temperature: thermometer

    (B) electric current: switch

    (C) bus ticket: punch

    (D) railroad track: route

    (E) fence: gate

    9. PRIMP: VAIN::

    (A) scowl: uncomfortable

    (B) mask: slick

    (C) cringe: mean

    (D) gloat: smug

    (E) boast: successful

    10. GOBBLE: EAT::

    (A) nibble: chomp

    (B) quaff: swallow

    (C) bite: chew

    (D) guzzle: drink

    (E) gulp: slurp

    11. SHIPSHAPE: DISARRAY::

    (A) snug: propriety

    (B) squalid: cleanliness

    (C) plush: prosperity

    (D) forsaken: desolation

    (E) chaotic: ostentation

    12. HOVER: PLUNGE::

    (A) float: swim

    (B) hide: stalk

    (C) crouch: spring

    (D) glide: swerve

    (E) flutter: alight

    13. SAGE: WISDOM::

    (A) pilgrim: abstinence

    (B) pundit: imitation

    (C) philanthropist: benevolence

    (D) legislator: diplomacy

    (E) crusader: ambition

    14. ERODE: DIMINISH::

    (A) corrode: contract

    (B) compress: conform

    (C) coalesce: purify

    (D) accrete: enlarge

    (E) adhere: complete

    15. MANIA: ENTHUSIASM::

    (A) exercise: activity

    (B) fever: symptom

    (C) coma: unconsciousness

    (D) honesty: virtue

    (E) doting: fondness

    16. DBDURATE: BUDGE::

    (A) outlandish: confirm

    (B) lucid: clarify

    (C) abstemious: deprive

    (D) lachrymose: cheer

    (E) insouciant: relax

    The stratospheric ozone layer is not a completely uniform stratum, nor does it occur at the same alti- tude around the globe. It lies closest to the Earth over the poles and rises to maximum altitude over the equator. In the stratosphere, ozone is conti- nuously being made and destroyed by natural pro- cesses. During the day the Sun breaks down some of the oxygen molecules to single oxygen atoms, and these, reacting with the oxygen molecules that have not been dissociated, form ozone. However, the sun- light also breaks down ozone by converting some of it back to normal oxygen. In addition naturally occurring nitrogen oxides enter into the cycle and speed the breakdown reactions. The amount of ozone present at any one time is the balance between the processes that create it and those that destroy it.

    Since the splitting of the oxygen molecules depends directly upon the intensity of solar radiation, the greatest rate of ozone production occurs over, the tropics. However, ozone is also destroyed most rap- idly there, and wind circulation patterns carry the ozone-enriched upper layers of the atmosphere away from the equator. It turns out that the largest total ozone amounts are found at high latitudes. On a typical day the amount of ozone over Minnesota, for example, is 30 percent greater than the amount over Texas, 900 miles farther south. The density and alti- tude of the ozone layer also change with the seasons, the weather, and the amount of solar activity. Never- theless, at any one place above the Earth's surface, the long-term averages maintained by natural processes are believed to be reasonably constant.

    The amount of ozone near the Earth is only a small percent of the amount in the stratosphere, and exchange of molecules between the ozone layer and the air at ground level is thought to be relatively small.Furthermore, the ozone molecule is so unstable that only a tiny fraction of ground-level ozone could survive the long trip to the stratosphere, so the ozone layer will not be replenished to any significant degree by the increasing concentrations of ozone that have been detected in recent years near the earth's surface. The long-tem averages of ozone both near ground level and in the stratosphere are regulated by contin- uous processes that are constantly destroying and creating it in each of these places. This is why scien- tists are so concerned about human beings injection into the stratosphere of chemicals like nitrogen oxides, which are catalysts that facilitate the break- down of ozone. If the ozone layer is depleted signif- icantly, more ultraviolet radiation would penetrate to the Earth's surface and damage many living organisms.

    17. The passage suggests that factors contributing to the variation in the amount of ozone above different areas of the Earth's surface include which of the following?

    Ⅰ. Some of the ozone found at higher latitudes was produced elsewhere.

    Ⅱ. There is usually a smaller amount of naturally occurring nitrogen oxide over high latitudes.

    Ⅲ. The rate of ozone production over the poles is less than that over the tropics.

    (A) Ⅱ only

    (B) Ⅲ only

    (C) Ⅰand Ⅱonly

    (D) Ⅰand Ⅲ only

    (E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ, and Ⅲ

    18. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?

    (A) Naturally occurring nitrogen oxides, as well as those introduced by humans, threaten to deplete the layer of ozone in the stratosphere.

    (B) A delicate but reasonably constant balance exists between the natural processes that produce and those that destroy ozone in the stratosphere.

    (C) There is little hope that the increased concentrations of ground-level ozone observed in recent years can offset any future depletion of stratospheric ozone.

    (D) Meteorologically induced changes in the concentration of ozone in the strato- sphere tend to cancel themselves out over a period of time.

    (E) Solar radiation not only produces and destroys ozone but also poses a hazard to human life

    19. The processes that determine the amount of ozone in a given portion of the stratosphere most resemble which of the following?

    (A) Automobile emissions and seasonal fog that create a layer of smog over a city

    (B) Planting and harvesting activities that produce a crop whose size is always about the same

    (C) Withdrawals and deposits made in a bank account whose average balance remains about the same

    (D) Assets and liabilities that determine the net worth of a corporation

    (E) High grades and low grades made by a student whose average remains about the same from term to term

    20. According to the passage, which of the following has the LEAST effect on the amount of ozone at a given location in the upper atmosphere?

    (A) Latitude

    (B) Weather

    (C) Season

    (D) Ground-level ozone

    (E) Solar activity

    21. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions?

    Ⅰ. What is the average thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer?

    Ⅱ. Why does increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation damage many living organisms?

    Ⅲ. What is the role of oxygen in the production of stratospheric ozone?

    (A) Ⅰ only

    (B) Ⅱ only

    (C) Ⅲ only

    (D) Ⅰand Ⅱ

    (E) Ⅱand Ⅲ

    22. In explaining what determines the amount of ozone in the stratosphere, the author describes natural processes that form

    (A) an interactive relationship

    (B) a reductive system

    (C) a linear progression

    (D) a set of randomly occurring phenomena

    (E) a set of sporadically recurring events

    Feelings of hopelessness among medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle gradually lessened as it became possible for women's labor to supplement a family's money income by more than pennies. By 1300, women spinners could be found working on their own for wealthy sponsors, even after the introduction it Italy and France of a prohibition against advancing money for supplies to women spinners. Historians have usually interpreted this prohibition simply as evidence of women's economic subjection, since it obliged them to turn to usurers; however, it was also almost certainly a response to a trend toward differential reward for women's higher skill. Yarn can be spun irregularly and lumpily, but perfectly smooth yarn is worth more. Working for merchant entrepreneurs on time rates, women had been paid hardly more than children; working as entrepreneurs themselves and producing good work by the piece, they could break into the rational system of differential rewards.

    23. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) propose and defend a theory about the consequences of a certain historical event

    (B) present historical facts and offer a broader interpretation of those facts than has been offered in the past

    (C) describe the socioeconomic effects of a widely held attitude during a particular historical period

    (D) demonstrate the superiority of using an economic approach to historical analysis

    (E) call attention to the influence of the textile industry on society during a particular historical period

    24. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the system of paying all workers equally on time rates as

    (A) unfair and not rational

    (B) undesirable but unavoidable

    (C) efficient and profitable

    (D) advantageous to most women workers

    (E) evidence of a trend toward a more modern wage system

    25. The passage implies which of the following about women spinners in medieval Europe?

    (A) Most of them worked independently for wealthy sponsors.

    (B) They were not typical of medieval women entrepreneurs.

    (C) Some of them were paid for their work after it was done, according to its value.

    (D) They would have been able to contribute substantial amounts to their families' incomes were it not for the prohibition against advancing money to them.

    (E) They were inevitably disadvantaged in the marketplace because they were obliged to obtain money for their supplies from usurers.

    26. The passage implies that feeling of hopelessness among medieval workers

    (A) resulted primarily from the lack of a rational system of differential rewards

    (B) disappeared completely once medieval textile workers were able to break the cycle of poverty

    (C) were more prevalent among female workers than among male workers

    (D) came into being in part because of women's limited earning capacity

    (E) were particularly common among textile workers in Italy and France

    27. The author suggests that historians have done which of the following?

    (A) Failed to give adequate consideration to the economic contribution of women during the medieval period.

    (B) Overestimated the degree of hopelessness experienced by medieval workers trapped in the poverty cycle.

    (C) Ignored the fact that by 1300 many women spinners were working independently rather than for merchant entrepreneurs.

    (D) Regarded the economics status of women in Italy and France as representative of women's status throughout medieval Europe.

    (E) Overlooked part of the significant of a prohibition government one aspect of yarn production in medieval Europe.

    28. QUOTA:

    (A) decisive action

    (B) unlimited number

    (C) anonymous remark

    (D) irrelevant topic

    (E) debatable issue

    29. SEGMENT:

    (A) affix

    (B) inflate

    (C) cleanse

    (D) make whole

    (E) keep still

    30. IMMUNITY:

    (A) incompatibility

    (B) variability

    (C) mortality

    (D) irritability

    (E) susceptibility

    31. DISJOINTED:

    (A) orderly

    (B) clever

    (C) rigid

    (D) flexible

    (E) persuasive

    32. BANE:

    (A) source

    (B) courage

    (C) divinity

    (D) sympathy

    (E) blessing

    33. ACCOLADE:

    (A) disappearance

    (B) absurdity

    (C) disapprobation

    (D) exclusion

    (E) reconstruction

    34. PLUMB:

    (A) lofty

    (B) light

    (C) thin

    (D) reversed (E) horizontal

    35. PALLIATE:

    (A) increase the intensity of

    (B) expand the scope of

    (C) enhance the appeal of

    (D) accelerate the diffusion of

    (E) extend the endurance of

    36. RAVEL:

    (A) remain silent

    (B) increase in value

    (C) knit

    (D) omit

    (E) measure

    37. GOAD:

    (A) ignore

    (B) cajole

    (C) console

    (D) protect

    (E) curb

    38. EFFLUVIA:

    (A) important examples

    (B) relevant theories

    (C) predictable results

    (D) controlled reactions

    (E) desired products

    section 5

    Questions 1-6

    A control panel consists of three on-off switches-X, Y, and Z-which must be changed from an initial setting to a second setting in accordance with the following rules:

    If switch X is the only one on in the initial setting, then turn on switch Y.

    If switches X and Y are the only ones on in the initial setting, then turn on switch Z.

    If all three switches are on in the initial setting. then turn off switch Z.

    For any other initial setting, turn on all switches that are off and turn off all switches, if any, that are on.

    1. If the initial setting is X on, Y on, Z off, what is the second setting?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z on

    (B) X on, Y off. Z on

    (C) X on. Y off. Z off

    (D) X off, Y on, Z off

    (E) X off, Y off. Z on

    2. If Y is the only switch on in the initial setting, what must be the second setting?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z on

    (B) X on, Y on, Z off

    (C) X on, Y off, Z on

    (D) X off, Y off, Z on

    (E) X off, Y off, Z off

    3. If all three switches are on in the second setting, which of the following could have been the initial setting?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z on

    (B) X on, Y on, Z off

    (C) X on, Y off, Z on

    (D) X on, Y off, Z off

    (E) X off, Y on, Z off

    4. If X is off in the second setting, which of the following must have been the initial setting?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z on

    (B) X on, Y on, Z off

    (C) X on, Y off, Z on

    (D) X on, Y off, Z off

    (E) X off, Y on, Z off

    5. If only Y is on in the second setting, which of the following must have been the initial setting?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z on

    (B) X on, Y off, Z on

    (C) X off, Y on, Z off

    (D) X off, Y off, Z on

    (E) X off, Y off, Z off

    6. Which of the following initial settings results in a second setting which only one switch is off?

    (A) X on, Y on, Z off

    (B) X on, Y off, Z on

    (C) X off, Y on, Z on

    (D) X off, Y on, Z off

    (E) X off, Y off, Z off

    7. The United States Bureau of the Census estimates that the United States began 1980 with a population of 221,895.548-a net increase of about 2 million during 1979. The bureau also reported that the 1979 population gain was slightly higher than the 1.8 million net increase of 1978. The record annual gain was a population increase of 3.1 million during the 1956 "baby boom."

    Which of the following conclusions about the number of people in the United States can be validly drawn from the statement above?

    (A) The number of people was higher in 1978 than it was in 1979.

    (B) The number of people was at an all time high in 1956.

    (C) The number of people added to the population of the United States was greater in 1979 than it was in either 1956 or 1978.

    (D) The number of people remained the same from 1977 to 1980.

    (E) The number of people added to the population in 1956 was greater than the number added in any single year in the 1970's.

    8. W and Z are each taller than V and than Y. If the statement above is true, one can conclude with certainty that X is taller than Y if one knows, in addition that

    (A) V is taller than Y.

    (B) W is taller than X.

    (C) W is taller than Z.

    (D) X is taller than V.

    (E) X is taller than Z.

    9. An analysis of the best times in the marathon for men and women worldwide over the past ten years shows that the women's record has been dropping about seven times faster than the men's record. At this point, however, the fastest men marathoners are still considerably ahead of the fastest women.

    Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the statements above?

    (A) Ten years ago, men marathoners came closer to the performance limits for men than women marathoners did to those for women.

    (B) The years ago, women who were superior runners did not compete in the marathon as often as women who are superior runners do today.

    (C) The women's record for the marathon will continue for another decade.

    (D) In due course, the world's best marathon times for men and women will no longer be kept as two separate records.

    (E) The current women's record for the marathon is a faster time than the men's record was ten years ago.

    Questions 10-12

    Six doctors-F, G, H, J, K, and L-are moving into offices in a two-story office building. On each floor of the building there are four offices, exactly the same size, in a row. Offices are numbered 11, 12, 13, and 14 from left to right on the first floor and 21,22, 23, and 24 from left to right on the second floor. The doctors must select their offices according to the following restrictions:

    F's office must be on the first floor.

    J's office must be immediately adjacent to G's office.

    K's office cannot be immediately adjacent to L's office.

    L's office cannot be on the same floor as G's office.

    10. If G is in 21, which of the following doctors could be in 11, 12 and 13, respectively?

    (A) F, H, L

    (B) F, J, K

    (C) K, L, H

    (D) L, J, F

    (E) L, K, F

    11. If H is in 11, G is in 14, and K is in 21, none of the six doctors can be in

    (A) 12

    (B) 13

    (C) 22

    (D) 23

    (E) 24

    12. If F is in 11, which of the following doctors CANNOT be in 13?

    (A) G

    (B) H

    (C) J

    (D) K

    (E) L

    Questions 13-17

    From exactly six objects-K, L, M, N, O, and P-two groups of objects must be selected by the following rules:

    Group 1 must consist of exactly three Objects, and group 2 must consist of exactly two objects. No object can be in both groups at once.

    If K is in group 1, L must be in group 2.

    If L is group 1, K must be in group 2.

    If M is in group 1, K cannot be in group 2.

    If L is in group 2, N cannot be in group 1.

    13. If K is one of the objects in group 1, which of the following must be true?

    (A) N is not in group 1.

    (B) O is not in group 2.

    (C) L is neither in group 1 nor in group 2.

    (D) M is in group 1.

    (E) P is group 2.

    14. Which of the following is a selection of objects for group 1 and 2 that conforms to the rules?

    Group 1           Group 2

    (A) K, M and N   L and M

    (B) K, L, and M   N and O

    (C) K, O, and P    K and P

    (D) L, M, and O   K and N

    (E) L, N, and P    K and M

    15. If the two groups have been selected but K is in neither of them, which of the following pairs of objects must be two objects in group 2?

    (A) L and M

    (B) L and N

    (C) L and O

    (D) N and P

    (E) O and P

    16. which of the following is a pair of objects neither of which can be in group 1 if L is in group 1?

    (A) K and M

    (B) K and O

    (C) M and N

    (D) M and P

    (E) O and P

    17. If M is one of the objects in group 1, which of the following must be one of the objects in group 2?

    (A) K

    (B) L

    (C) N

    (D) O

    (E) P

    Questions 18-22

    A principal is planning the assignment of five teachers. V, W, X, Y, and Z, and five aides, J, K, L, M, and N, to five adjoining rooms numbered consecutively, one through five, according to the following conditions:

    Exactly one teacher and one aide must be assigned to each room.

    J and Z must be assigned to room four.

    M must be assigned to the same room as Y.

    W and X must each be assigned to one of the end rooms.

    X cannot be assigned to a room that either K or L is assigned to.

    18. Each of the following is a possible assignment of teachers to rooms one and two, respectively, EXCEPT

    (A) W, V

    (B) W, Y

    (C) X, V

    (D) X, Y

    (E) Y, V

    19. Which of the following could be assigned to room three?

    (A) J

    (B) L

    (C) W

    (D) X

    (E) Z

    20. If V is assigned to room two, which of the following must be true?

    (A) K is assigned to room five.

    (B) L is assigned to room one.

    (C) N is assigned to room two.

    (D) W is assigned to room one.

    (E) Y is assigned to room three.

    21. If M and L are assigned to rooms two and three, respectively, which of the following must be true?

    (A) K is assigned to room one.

    (B) V is assigned to room three.

    (C) W is assigned to room five .

    (D) There is exactly one room between N's room and M's room.

    (E) There are exactly two rooms between W's room and Y's room.

    22. If K and V are assigned to room two, which of the following must be true?

    (A) J and Y are assigned to a room together.

    (B) L and W are assigned to a room together.

    (C) M and Y are assigned to room five.

    (D) M and Z are assigned to a room together.

    (E) N and W are assigned to room three.

    23. There is a growing trend today toward settling legal differences between corporations by private arbitration rather than in the courts. The average arbitration takes 141 days from filing to award, whereas the average time from filing to trial in the courts is 20 months. Any two corporations aware of this fact will surely prefer some sort of private arbitration to a court trial.

    Which of the following, if true, could best be used to challenge the conclusion above?

    (A) The fees for court litigation are usually no higher than the fees for private arbitration.

    (B) The average time of 20 months does not include time spent in the courtroom.

    (C) A delay in settling legal differences is often beneficial to one of the parties involved.

    (D) For some corporations 141 days is an inconveniently long time to wait for a legal decision.

    (E) If both parties choose to do so, they can build the possibility of appeal into private arbitration.

    24. Starchy foods such as breads and cereals have only half as many calories per ounce as do fatty foods such as butter and cheese. People who want to lose weight by consuming fewer calories without being hungry because they have reduced the amount of food they eat can do so by substituting an equal weight to starchy foods for some of the fatty foods they now cat.

    Which of the following, if true, is a drawback to the weight-loss strategy proposed above?

    (A) Starchy foods such as bread are usually less expensive than fatty foods such as butter and cheese.

    (B) Fatty foods are more compact than starchy foods, and therefore add less bulk to the diet.

    (C) A fat-free diet eventually leads to serious nutritional deficiencies.

    (D) Starchy foods do not alleviate a desire to eat for as long as fatty foods do, because they are more quickly digested

    (E) Some people prefer the taste of starchy foods to that of fatty foods.

    25. "I propose the following strategy for responding to the rapidly shrinking demand for our line of Rota toys: in each of the next five years, let us cut production of those toys by ten percent of the preceding year's production level, and our production in year five will be reduced to exactly half of what it is today."

    Which of the following is a logical error contained in the proposal above?

    (A) The reasons for the decline in the demand for Rota toys are not analyzed.

    (B) The proposal is put forth without an explanation of why the figure of ten percent was set as a goal.

    (C) The proposal is a conservative response in that it treats the problem of decreasing demand as likely to persist.

    (D) The proposal leaves open what is to be done once the plan for the next five years has been carried out.

    (E) The strategy as described above, if carried out, would not result in as large a reduction in production as is projected.

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