PART II CLOZE
Decide which of the choices given below would correctly complete the passage if inserted in the corresponding blanks. Select the correct choice for each blank.
Since 1895 the National Trust (国家文物信托基金会) has worked for the preservation of places of historic interest and natural beauty in England, Wales and Nortbem Ireland. Today the Trust —— (26)_____ is not a government department but a charity depending on (27)_____ support of the public and its own members —— is the largest landowner and conservation society in Britain. Wherever you go, you are close to land that is protected and (28)_____ by the National Trust. Over 350 miles of (29)_____ coastline; 90,000 acres of land, lakes and forests in one area of natural beauty (30)_____; prehistoric and Roman ruins; moorlands and farmland, woods and islands; lengths of (31)_____ waterways; even seventeen whole villages —— all are open to the public at all times subject only (32)_____ the needs of farming, forestry and the protection of wildlife. But the Trusts protection (33)_____ further than this. It has in its possession a hundred gardens and (34)_____ two hundred historic buildings which it opens to paying visitors. Castles and churches, houses of (35)_____ or historic importance, mills, gardens and parks (36)_____ to the Trust by their former owners. Many houses retain their (37)_____ contents of fine furniture, pictures and other treasures accumulated over (38)_____, and often the donor himself continues to live in part of the house as a (39)_____ of the National Trust. The walking-sticks in the hall, flowers, silver-framed photographs, books and papers in the rooms are signs that the house is still loved and (40)_____ and that visitors are welcomed as private individuals just as much as tourists.
26. A) it B) which C) this D) whether it
27. A) deliberate B) compulsory C) spontaneous D) voluntary
28. A) maintained B) watched C) renewed D) repaired
29. A) unused B) underdeveloped C) unwanted D) unspoilt
30. A) besides B) nearby C) alone D) beyond
31. A) interior B) inland C) inside D) inner
32. A) by B) at C) to D) on
33. A) develops B) extends C) enlarges D) prolongs
34. A) some B) nearby C) on average D) more
35. A) architectural B) archetype C) architecture D) archaeology
36. A) are giving B) have given C) been given D) have been given
37. A) primitive B) initial C) elementary D) original
38. A) times B) generations C) years D) age groups
39. A) resident B) dweller C) tenant D) housekeeper
40. A) lived in B) kept over C) resided with D) taken up
PART III GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
There are twenty-five sentences in this section. Beneath each sentence there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose one word or phrase that correctly completes the sentence
41. Modern medicine has made great _____ to the health and welfare of mankind.
42. A very sore throat had reduced his voice to a _____.
43. For John, no hobby can _____ the thrill of the chase after a rare stamp.
44. Some animals will modify their behavior to _____ to their environment.
45. Smith drove all the _____ to Los Angeles and was just in time for the opening ceremony of the 23rd Olympiad.
46. Does it ever _____ to you that they would be punished for being late?
47. He never allowed his children to be _____ of anything necessary for their education.
48. She is too _____ to be careless about her house-keeping.
49. If you keep in mind the process of word deviation (派生), you'll be able to _____ the meaning of many words.
A) reason with
B) make up
C) count on
D) figure out
50. Did you see the traffic accident involving the _____ between a truck and two cars the other day?
51. Scientists will have to come _____ new methods of increasing the world's food supply.
A) up with
B) up for
C) down with
D) down to
52. The workers produced more steel, and all of fine quality _____.
A) at it
B) at this
C) for that
D) at that
53. The thing that _____ is not whether you succeed or fail, but that you at least try.
54. We _____ down when she _____ plates of food for us.
A) had hardly sat, had brought
B) hardly sat, brought
C) hardly sat, had brought
D) had hardly sat, brought
55. _____ the silkworm produces a fluid internally and then forces it out through tiny holes in its body.
A) It makes silk and
B) Making silk
C) To make silk
D) Silk is made by
56. _____, we went swimming.
A) The day being hot
B) It was a hot day
C) Being a hot day
D) Owing to a hot day
57. _____ in a recent science competition, three individuals were awarded scholarships totaling '36,000.
A) Judged the best
B) Judging for the best
C) Judging the best
D) Having judged the best
58. Some days go by much more quickly than others. Some hours as if they _____.
A) would never end
B) should never end
C) will never end
D) might never end
59. John would never have gone to the hospital _____ that Tom would be there, too.
A) he did not know
B) if had he known
C) had he known
D) he would have known
60. _____ he suggested was the sharing of the cost among all the five.
61. The village _____ my mother grew up in is not far from the city.
62. Someone must have left the tap running, _____ the water was running over and flooding the bathroom.
63. When she arrived, she found _____ the aged and the sick at home.
A) none but
B) nothing but
C) none other
D) no other than
64. The forces of socialism are formidable. To them _____.
A) the future belongs
B) belongs the future
C) that the future belongs
D) the future will belong
65. Preston Blair, _____ born in Kentucky, lived and practiced law in Missouri.
B) he was
D) who he was
PART IV READING COMPREHENSION
In this section there are five passages followed by fifteen questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answer marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that you think is the correct answer.
TEXT A The Olympic Games originated in 776 B.C. in Olympia, a small town in Greece. Participants in the first Olympiad are said to have run a 200-yard race, but as the Games were held every four years, they expanded in scope. Only Greek amateurs were allowed to participate in this festival in honor of the God Zeus. The event became a religious, patriotic, and athletic occasion where winners were honored with wreaths and special privileges. There was a profound change in the nature of the Games under the Roman emperors. They were banned in 394 A.D. by Emperor Theodosius, after they became professional circuses and carnivals. The modern Olympic Games began in Athens in 1896 as a result of the initiative of Baron Pierre de Coubertin, a French educator whose desire was to promote international understanding through athletics. Nine nations participated in the first Games; over 100 nations currently compete. The taint of politics and racial controversy, however, has impinged upon the Olympic Games in our epoch. In 1936 Hitler, whose country hosted the Games, affronted Jesse Owens, a black American runner, by refusing to congratulate Owens fro the feat of having won four gold medals. In the 1972 Munich games, the world was appalled by the deplorable murder of eleven Israeli athletes by Arab terrorists. The next Olympic Games in Montreal were boycotted by African nations; in addition, Taiwan withdrew. In 1980, following the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan, sixty-two nations caused great dismay to their athletes by refusing to participate in the Games. The consensus among those nations was that their refusal would admonish the Soviets.
66. According to the passage, the first Olympic games were held _____.
A) as a religious festival
B) for political reasons
C) as an international competition
D) as a professional athletes' competition
67. From the passage, we can infer that Hitler's refusal to congratulate Jesse Owens was an indication of _____.
B) national pride
C) racial discrimination
D) political prejudice
68. The feelings of those athletes whose countries boycotted the 1980 Games could best be described as _____.
C) very happy
TEXT B The car industry suffered another setback yesterday when Lucas Electrical Company announced that many of its 12,000 workers at 15 factories in the West Midlands would be going on short time. It was expected that they would work a four-day week starting early next month. "There will be a requirement for some short-time working in selected product areas and the final details will be organized on a site-by-site basis," a Lucas spokesman said in Birmingham. The factories cover an area from Telford, Shropshire, to Solihull in the West Midlands. Many of those involved are women and the products include alternators, batteries and headlamps. For many families the wife has been the sole earner in recent months. The Lucas announcement is expected to have an aggravated effect on the regions rapidly declining economy. The company spokesman said that not all the 12,000 would be affected; about 20 percent of the staff would not be affected at all. The announcement comes after BLs production cuts in the Austin-Rover division with a two-week extended holiday for 8,000 workers because of the sluggish market. Dunlop in Birmingham has made a similar decision. Lucas said that it was also because of reductions in the schedules of other customers in the car industry. It was emphasized that it was temporary and its duration would depend on how many cars were sold in the coming months.
69. According to the passage, we learn the bad news for the car industry from _____.
A) the announcement of production cuts by the Austin-Rover
B) the report of the sluggish market for the car industry
C) the announcement of short-time working by Lucas
D) the reductions in the schedules of some customers
70. Which of the following is true about the bad news?
A) Workers would work a five-day week.
B) Women would have to take early retirement.
C) 8,000 workers would have fewer paid holidays than before.
D) It will result in an increase of the decline of the area's economy.
71. Which of the following is not produced by the West Midlands factories?
72. According to the passage, how many workers would not be affected by the bad news?
A) About 2,400.
B) About 5,000.
C) About 8,000.
D) About 12,000.
TEXT C George had stolen some money, but the police had caught him and he had been put in prison. Now his trial was about to begin, and he felt sure that he would be found guilty and sent to prison for a long time. Then he discovered that an old friend of his was one of the members of the jury at his trial. Of course, he did not tell anybody, but he managed to see his friend secretly one day. He said to him, "Jim, I know that the jury will find me guilty of having stolen the money. I cannot hope to be found not guilty of taking it —— that would be too much to expect. But I should be grateful to you for the rest of my life if you could persuade the other members of the jury to add a strong recommendation for mercy to their statement that they consider me guilty." "Well, George," Jim answered, "as I thought, those eleven men were very difficult to persuade, but I managed in the end by tiring them out. Do you know, those fools had all wanted to find you not guilty!"
73. We are told that George expected Jim to help _____.
A) prove him innocent
B) him turn over a new leaf
C) lighten his punishment
D) him escape from prison
74. Which of the following is true about Jim?
A) He covered up George's guilt.
B) He persuaded the jury to set George free.
C) He told the jury that George was indeed guilty.
D) He recommended severe punishment to give George a lesson.
75. The passage suggests that _____.
A) it was due to Jim that George was found guilty
B) Jim did not do exactly what George asked him to do
C) Jim asked his colleagues to recommend mercy
D) Jim persuaded the jury to lighten George's punishment
TEXT D Seoul, once a city for kings, can now claim to be a city for commuters. The third nation in the Orient to develop an underground rapid-transit system, Korea opened its first line in 1974. After 12 years of continuing construction, Seoul had finally completed the rest of its extensive subway system, capable of serving 5 million commuters a day. The 73-mile-long system, the worlds seventh largest, is expected to alleviated the acute daily traffic congestion downtown. For an estimated 2.7 billion, the city has built one of the most modern subways in the world, replete with air-conditioning, high-tech ticket machines and escalators to deep-level stations. The subway stops, bucking an international tradition of dull concrete walls, are attractions themselves: many are lined with shopping arcades, others sponsor art exhibits and several have been blasted out of granite and left in their natural state, creating an eerie, cavelike effect. The subway is a long-term solution to transit problems in a city that is bursting at the seams with 9.5 million people. It is designed to encourage the growth of satellite cities along the lines that run outside the city proper. Efficiency, safety and economy are the catchwords of the Seoul Metropolitan Subway Corporation, which handled construction and now manages the four lines. But traditional concern for cleanliness adds to the popularity of this rapid mode of underground transportation. Recently 20 young couples chose the subway as the site for their wedding ceremonies, proof that the system is heralding a new age of modern living for the inhabitants of the nations capital.
76. According to the passage, how many cities in the world have subway systems larger than that in Seoul, Korea?
77. Why do some young couples choose the subway as the site for their wedding ceremonies?
A) It is cleaner than places on the ground.
B) It is symbol of modern living.
C) It is the world's seventh largest subway.
D) It is built in the nation's capital.
TEXT E Going on computer may be the toughest job a remodeling contractor ever does. In order to make a conversion within a year, a company will need to make a major shakeup. This does not mean it will take a year to start using the computer for one function such as estimating, accounting, or word processing. The total conversion process will not be accomplished in a short period with little effort. A contractor in Indiana recently said he wished someone had warned him about how tough it was going to be. With an annual volume of more than 500,000 and a good staff in place he still had fear. For effective use of the computer in a remodeling business, a complete change in methods of doing business usually is required. All management staff must get involved. Changes may include pre-selecting and standardizing products and systems, developing specifications, changing the estimating system, and requiring more detailed information on time card. The list goes on and on. Without the support and active leadership of top management, this process, in all likelihood, will be fought by employees and will fail. It is true that a computer can save money by stepping up the speed of estimating and making job costing, bookkeeping, and accounting more efficient. word processing will certainly reduce time in typing contracts, writing letters, and so on. Still, most companies do not save money using the computer. Once they have mastered the basic computer operation, they become so enthralled with its ability to do other things they never considered when it was purchased. The computer business is changing so fast that a company on computer will want to spend money on the latest hardware, newest software, and so on. that is the bad news. The good news is that the computer simply revolutionizes the companys ability to manage and innovate. The change in management methods, the ability to use numbers, and other new capabilities provide greater control over the company and allow it to grow and make more money.
78. According to the passage, a complete conversion can take _____.
A) several months
B) about a year
C) half a year
D) several years
79. Without the support and leadership of management, the change to computerization will probably _____.
A) take twice as long
B) cost a great deal
C) be unsuccessful
D) end up losing money
80. The author seems to feel that most companies _____.
A) will be on computers within five years
B) lose money whenever the computers go down
C) have trouble making the conversion to computers
D) do not save money by using the computer
SECTION B SKIMMING AND SCANNING
In this section there are six passages with a total of ten multiple-choice questions. Skim or scan them as required and then select your answers to the questions.
TEXT F First read the following questions. 81. The emphasis of this advertisement is on _____. A. locations B. reduced cost C. opening hours D. a trial membership 82. Which of the following may you enjoy in winter if you join the club? A. Swimming. B. Saving 100. C. Having no more than 100 free lessons. D. Using 7 locations. Now read Text F quickly and select your answers. ONCE-A-YEAR SUMMER SALE! SAVE 100 OR MORE! This month only, every membership plan is substantially reduced. Thats great! But the real excitement at HRC (Health & Racquet Club) comes from what people do. Nautilus Ours is the most complete and advanced equipment available. Free Classes We offer over 120 free classes each week including aerobic and tap dance, calisthenics, yoga and more. Youll also enjoy free clinics in racquetball, squash and tennis. Dont forget about our whirlpools, saunas and swimming pools either. Guarantee Come to HRC for 3 days. If all that action leaves you less than satisfied youll get a full refund. 5 Locations By the way, your membership allows you to use all 5 locations in Manhattan 7 days a week. Give us a call or drop by for more information. Sales Ends Aug. 31st! NEW YORK HEALTH & RACQUET CLUB
81. The emphasis of this advertisement is on _____.
B) reduced cost
C) opening hours
D) a trial membership
82. Which of the following may you enjoy in winter if you join the club?
B) Saving '100.
C) Having no more than 100 free lessons.
D) Using 7 locations.
TEXT G First read the following questions. 83. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Importance of Play B. The Importance of Books C. The Relationship Between Play and Work D. Childrens Speech Development Now read Text G quickly and select your answers. Play is the principal business of childhood, and more and more in recent years research has shown the great importance of play in the development of a human being. From earliest infancy, every child needs opportunity and the right material for play, and the main tools of play are toys. Their main function is to suggest, encourage and assist play. To succeed in this they must be good toys, which children will play with often, and will come back to again and again. Therefore it is important to choose suitable toys for different stages of a childs development. In recent years research on infant development has shown the standard a child is likely to reach, within the range of his inherited abilities, is largely determined in the first three years of his life. So a babys ability to profit from the right play materials should not be underestimated. A baby who is encouraged and stimulated, talked to and shown things an played with, has the best chance of growing up successfully. The next stage, from three to five years old, curiosity knows no bounds. Every type of suitable toy should be made available to the child, for trying out, experimenting and learning, for discovering his own particular ability. Bricks and jigsaws and construction toys; painting, scribbling and making things; sand and water play; toys for imaginative and pretending play; the first social games for learning to play and get on with others. By the third stage of play development —— from five to seven or eight years —— the child is at school. But for a few more years play is still the best way of learning, at home or at school. It is easier now to see which type of toys the child most enjoys. Until the age of seven or eight, play and work mean much the same thing to a child. But once reading has been mastered, then books and school become the main source of learning. Toys are still interesting and valuable, they lead on to new hobbies, but their significance has changed —— to a child of nine or ten years, toys and games mean, as to adults, relaxation and fun.
83. What is the best title for the passage?
A) The Importance of Play
B) The Importance of Books
C) The Relationship Between Play and Work
D) Children's Speech Development
TEXT H First read the following questions. 84. McLaurin Gallery is open _____. A. six days a week B. only at the weekend C. every day except Saturday & Sunday D. every day Now read Text H quickly and select your answers. Winthrop Galleries Exhibition Schedule August 9 - September 21 Gallery I: Selections from the Permanent Collection August 16 - September 21 Gallery II: Nene Humphrey: Matrix August 27 - October 2 McLaurin Gallery: Interior Design October 1 - November 15 Gallery II: Across Generations: Catawba Potters and Their Art October1 - November 22 Gallery I: Discovering America: Finding Many Faces December3 - February 7 Gallery I and II: Art and Design Faculty Exhibition February 14 - April 4 Gallery I: Katherine Kadish: Paintnigs Gallery II: Cordelia Williams: The Extraordinary Adventures of Camilla and the Fairy Cat Winthrop Galleries is located in Rutledge Building. Hours are Monday through Friday 8:30a.m. —— 4:30p.m. The Gallery is closed on Saturdays. Hours for McLarin Student Gallery are Monday through Friday 8:30a.m. —— 5p.m.
84. McLaurin Gallery is open _____.
A) six days a week
B) only at the weekend
C) every day except Saturday & Sunday
D) every day
TEXT I First read the following questions. 85. If a traveler needs a car for one or two weekdays, what offer is available if the car is reserved one month in advance? A. A free upgrade. B. Unlimited mileage. C. Discounted rates. D. An additional weekend day. 86. According to the advertisement, the following charges may be added to the cost of renting a car on the Leisure Weekend offer EXCEPT _____. A. Mileage. B. Taxes. C. Licensing fee. D. Fuel. Now read Text I quickly and select your answers. Rent from U Drive It and Choose from a Free One-Car-Class Upgrade or a Free Weekend Day If youre planning a vacation with U Drive it, then youve got a lot more than just some free time coming. Thats because now through July 15, with every U Drive It Leisure Weekly or Leisure Weekend rate rental, you can choose from a free one-car-class upgrade or a third weekend day free. Choose from a wide variety of cars at low rates. Most with free unlimited mileage. Just ask for our Leisure Weekly or Leisure Weekend rate and the choice is yours. If you only have a day or two, daily rentals are 26 a day. Discount weekday rates are available at airport locations through December 15 when booked one month in advance. Discount weekend rates are not available in Florida, Hawaii, or the New York metropolitan area and are higher in Los Angeles. Availability is limited and blackout periods apply. Standard rental qualifications, rental period, and return restrictions apply. Minimum rental age is 25. Taxes, vehicle licensing fees, and optional items such as refueling are extra. Call your travel agent or U Drive It at 1-800-555-2230 and state whether you want the upgrade offer or the third Leisure weekend day free offer.
85. If a traveler needs a car for one or two weekdays, what offer is available if the car is reserved one month in advance?
A) A free upgrade.
B) Unlimited mileage.
C) Discounted rates.
D) An additional weekend day.
86. According to the advertisement, the following charges may be added to the cost of renting a car on the Leisure Weekend offer EXCEPT _____.
C) Licensing fee.
TEXT J First read the following questions. 87. Who would NOT be eligible for this position? A. A person with 4 years of computer experience. B. A person who doesnt mind working evenings. C. A person who doesnt like to travel. D. A person who cant work on Saturday. 88. What should an interested applicant for this position do? A. Mail a resume. B. Call for an interview. C. Stop by to get more information. D. Submit letters of recommendation. Now read Text J quickly and select your answers. Computer Operator Large manufacturing company has an immediate opening for a computer operator with a minimum of 3 years of experience. AS400 experience required. Must be flexible to work different shifts and able to work in a 24-hour environment. No travel required. Some work on weekends. For immediate consideration, please submit your resume (no letters of recommendation). We will call you to arrange an interview and provide additional information. The McNally Group Department 065 2240 East 15th Street Los Angeles, CA 90021
87. Who would NOT be eligible for this position?
A) A person with 4 years of computer experience.
B) A person who doesn't mind working evenings.
C) A person who doesn't like to travel.
D) A person who can't work on Saturday.
88. What should an interested applicant for this position do?
A) Mail a resume.
B) Call for an interview.
C) Stop by to get more information.
D) Submit letters of recommendation.
TEXT K First read the following questions. 89. What is the function of the electrodes mentioned in the passage? A. They detect the clicks sounds. B. They transmit the clicks to the computer. C. They detect electrical activity in the brain. D. They stimulate the auditory nervous system. 90. The function of the computer in this test is _____. A. to amplify electrical signals B. to transform electrical signals into sounds C. to send electrical signals through the earphones D. to transform electrical signals into a printed pattern Now read Text K quickly and select your answers. Until recently, because of the difficulty of testing hearing in a small children, deafness often wasnt detected until a child was about two, too late to prevent a permanent language handicap. Now, however, there is a method to test infants hearing by measuring electrical activity generated by the brain stem in response to sound. Through earphones, an infant is presented with a series of clicking sounds that stimulate the auditory nervous system. The electrical activity thus evoked in the brain is in turn picked up by electrodes placed behind each ear. These electrical signals are amplified, fed into a computer and printed out as waves on a graph. Within 12.5 milliseconds of a click, the graph of a normal baby will show seven distinct peaks, each representing a point along the path the sound has taken from the auditory nerve to the hearing centers of the cortex. For a baby with impaired hearing, peaks take longer to appear. different types of hearing defects, moreover, will produce wave patterns that deviate from the normal characteristic ways. for example, absence of all seven waves indicates total sensory-neural deafness, usually untreatable. In conductive deafness, which can be treated, wave patterns will emerge if the intensity of the sound is increased.
89. What is the function of the electrodes mentioned in the passage?
A) They detect the clicks sounds.
B) They transmit the clicks to the computer.
C) They detect electrical activity in the brain.
D) They stimulate the auditory nervous system.
90. The function of the computer in this test is _____.
A) to amplify electrical signals
B) to transform electrical signals into sounds
C) to send electrical signals through the earphones
D) to transform electrical signals into a printed pattern
PART V DICTATION
Listen to the following passage. Altogether the passage will be read to you four times. During the first reading, which will be read at normal speed, listen and try to understand the meaning. For the second and third readings, the passage will be read sentence by sentence, or phrase by phrase, with intervals of 15 seconds. The last reading will be read at normal speed again and during this time you should check your work. You will then be given 2 minutes to check through your work once more.
PART VI WRITING
Write a composition of about 150 words on the following topic:
HOW TO SOLVE THE ENERGY PROBLEM You are to write in three parts. In the first part, state clearly your viewpoint on this issue. In the second part, give one or two reasons to support your point of view. In the last part, bring what you have written to a natural conclusion. Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy. Failure to follow these instructions may result in the loss of marks.
SECTION B NOTE-WRITING [10 MIN.]
Write a note of about 50-60 words based on the following situation: Write a not to your friend explaining your absence from a party you had promised faithfully to go to last weekend. Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy.