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2006-01-23 00:00


  Decide which of the choices given below would correctly complete the passage if inserted in the corresponding blanks.    Select the correct choice for each blank.

  Recreational runner Carrie Johnston usually doesnt feel hungry after a good sweat. Exercise (26)_____ Johnstons appetite, but she knows she needs to (27)_____ lost calories following a workout. "When I come home from a good run, I force myself to eat supper," says Johnston, a dietitian at McMaster University in Hamilton. (28)_____, Johnston says many female athletes let good eating habits go and risk health (29)_____ thinness. Johnston, who works in the bone-marrow transplant unit at McMaster, has a background in sports (30)_____. In 1997, while a student at the University of Guelph, she worked with Prof. Heather Keller on a study for her (31)_____ on the eating habits of female athletes. The (32)_____ person with eating disorders is driven by a desire to look svelte, says Johnston. But her study focused on athletes who eat less to lower weight and body fat (33)_____ the belief it will improve (34)_____. The study involved (35)_____ 22 elite female athletes between ages 15 and 25 over three months. "Years ago when we didnt know any better it was thought that being lighter meant running better," says Johnston, adding thats still the mentality of many competitive runners, as well as other (36)_____ like gymnasts and swimmers. Johnstons study (37)_____ consumed 400 to 700 fewer calories daily than recommended for their (38)_____ training. Even when training more as they got closer to competing, they failed to (39)_____ more food fuel for energy. Initially, race (40)_____ tend to improve when a runner loses some weight, but then they hit a peak and plummet, says Johnston.

  26.   A) represses   B) suppresses   C) depresses   D) expresses

  27.   A) make up to   B) make up on   C) make up for   D) make up with

  28.   A) Therefore   B) However   C) Moreover   D) Furthermore

  29.   A) in the act of   B) on the point of   C) at the expense of   D) for the sake of

  30.   A) nutrition   B) nullity   C) nuisance   D) nuance

  31.   A) thesis   B) object   C) target   D) objective

  32.   A) common   B) average   C) ordinary   D) popular

  33.   A) based on   B) basing on   C) being based on   D) having based on

  34.   A) act   B) action   C) demonstration   D) performance

  35.   A) to track   B) to have tracked   C) tracking   D) being tracked

  36.   A) players   B) athletes   C) runners   D) contestants

  37.   A) topics   B) projects   C) plans   D) subjects

  38.   A) strenuous   B) tedious   C) lusty   D) nervous

  39.   A) take up   B) take to   C) take on   D) take in

  40.   A) signals   B) signs   C) scores   D) symbols


  There are twenty-five sentences in this section.    Beneath each sentence there are four choices marked A, B, C and D.    Choose one word or phrase that correctly completes the sentence.

  41. When there are small children around, it is necessary to put bottles of pills out of _____.

  A) hand

  B) place

  C) hold

  D) reach

  42. In spite of the wide range of reading material specially written or _____ for language learning purposes, there is yet no comprehensive systematic program for the reading skills.

  A) adapted

  B) acknowledged

  C) assembled

  D) appointed

  43. The river is already _____ its banks because of excessive rainfall, and the city is threatened with a likely flood.

  A) parallel to

  B) level in

  C) flat on

  D) flush with

  44. The bedcover has _____ because of long wear.

  A) fainted

  B) lightened

  C) weakened

  D) faded

  45. The matter was soon forgot and never _____.

  A) put into operation

  B) taken into account

  C) kept in sight

  D) brought to mind

  46. When I spoke to him about our trip to China, he didn't make any _____ to your coming with us.

  A) comments

  B) references

  C) inquiries

  D) remarks

  47. They were forced to _____ production for lack of raw materials.

  A) cut across

  B) cut in

  C) cut off

  D) cut back

  48. The _____ of new scientific discoveries to industrial production methods usually makes jobs easier to do.

  A) addition

  B) association

  C) application

  D) affection

  49. I'm happy to see you've made such a swift _____ from your illness.

  A) recovery

  B) restoration

  C) renewal

  D) retreat

  50. The new traffic regulations will come into _____ in May.

  A) efficiency

  B) affection

  C) effect

  D) influence

  51. The student couldn't _____ what the teacher was trying to explain.

  A) grip

  B) seize

  C) grasp

  D) snatch

  52. A person of 18 should stop _____ on his parents.

  A) dependent

  B) independent

  C) dependence

  D) independence

  53. There is virtually no _____ to this grammar rule.

  A) except

  B) accept

  C) exception

  D) acception

  54. General Brown was older than any other officer in his regiment, but he was unwilling _____.

  A) retiring from military service

  B) to be retired by military service

  C) to retire from military service

  D) to be retired from military service

  55. Your window wants _____, you'd better have it _____ this week.

  A) cleaning, do

  B) to be cleaned, do

  C) cleaning, done

  D) being cleaned, done

  56. The lost car of the Lees was found _____ in the woods off the highway.

  A) abandoning

  B) be abandoned

  C) abandoned

  D) to be abandoned

  57. I'd just as soon _____ rudely to her.

  A) that you won't speak

  B) your not speaking

  C) you not speak

  D) you didn't speak

  58. Whatever _____ the reasons for it, we cannot tolerate this disloyalty.

  A) were

  B) have been

  C) be

  D) are

  59. The fact _____ the carriage was warm sent him to sleep.

  A) that

  B) which

  C) what

  D) when

  60. _____ is true everywhere in the world, you can rent a room by the day, week, month, or year.

  A) Like

  B) As

  C) The same as

  D) Such as

  61. My English teacher is extremely strict about grammar. I dare not talk with him _____ I get every grammatical point straight in my mind.

  A) although

  B) while

  C) if

  D) unless

  62. Nowadays, school children do _____ just _____ classes. There are many of them demanded by their parents to learn something else useful in the modern society.

  A) no more than, attend

  B) no less than, attending

  C) far less than, attending

  D) far more than, attend

  63. _____ that the trade between the two countries reached its highest point.

  A) During the 1960's

  B) It was in the 1960's

  C) That it was in the 1960's

  D) It was the 1960's

  64. Weather _____, the picnic will be held as scheduled.

  A) permits

  B) should permit

  C) will permit

  D) permitting

  65. The large houses are being painted, but _____.

  A) of great expense

  B) in a lot of expenses

  C) at a great expense

  D) by high expenses


  In this section there are five passages followed by fifteen questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answer marked A, B, C and D.    Choose the one that you think is the correct answer.

  TEXT A The worldwide consumption of bakery products is increasing. Many populations that formerly relied solely on rice or coarser grains as their main source of carbohydrates show a preference for compounded bakery products as new industry and increased incomes make them more widely accessible. Japan is an outstanding example of countries following this trend. The United States has shown a steady downward trend in per capita consumption of cereal-based foods for many years, and the consumption of sweet bakery foods, such as cakes or pastry, has been increasingly displacing bread consumption. Probably 95% of the white bread sold in the United States is enriched with thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and iron, and about 30% of the 50 states have laws requiring white bread enrichment. Formerly, calcium and vitamin D were frequently added to enriched bread, but lack of consumer demand and questionable nutritional benefit led to gradual phasing out of these enrichments. India has attempted to encourage consumption of protein-enriched bread, with some success. Except for research projects, little has been done in other countries, however. In areas where bakery products comprise a large proportion of the diet, they could provide an ideal vehicle for nutritional supplementation. Then need for better quality protein in the daily diet occurs mostly in the developing countries, where carbohydrate foods —— usually cereals —— are the basic components of the diet and therefore the logical protein carriers.

  66. Japan is used in this passage to illustrate a fashion in many countries to _____.

  A) enrich bread

  B) invest more in food industry

  C) increase consumption of bakery foods

  D) increase a reliance on rice and grains

  67. According to the passage, popular cereals could be the best way in developing countries to _____.

  A) supplement the diet

  B) displace rice consumption

  C) increase reliance on carbohydrates

  D) phase out necessary bread enrichments

  68. From the passage, we learn that there is a worldwide trend towards _____.

  A) enriching the nutritional value of bread

  B) increasing the consumption of protein

  C) using bakery products as a source of carbohydrates

  D) using grains, such as rice, as a source of carbohydrates

  TEXT B The CBI will this week announce a Think British campaign aimed at cutting imports and stimulating home industries. The man behind the move is Sir Derek Ezra, chairman of the National Coal Board, who has persuaded the CBIs council that firms can buy British supplies without paying more for their patriotism. The target of a conference the CBI is calling early in the New Year will be the 50 biggest manufacturing companies in the private sector and 16 leading firms in distribution who together spend ?5bn a year. Sir Derek says "By actively pursuing a policy on the line I have described they could have a major impact in stimulating industrial competitiveness and growth". Nationalized industries have already switched up to ?00m worth of their buying from foreign suppliers to British firms in the past year. In a paper which went to the CBI council last week, Sir Derek produced figures to demonstrate how, by hunting out suppliers who were prepared to co-operate closely in developing equipment and materials at the right quality and price, the nationalized enterprises have succeeded in getting what they want and in boosting Britains exports. The NCB itself, at the same time as cutting back the import content of its annual 1,000m worth of purchases to 2.6%, has helped the British mining equipment industry to raise its exports from ?6m to ?29m in two years. The public enterprises together, who spent up to ?0bn on goods and services each year, have cut the amount they buy abroad from 4.3% to 3.4% over the past year. Sir Derek emphasizes that this has not been done by sacrificing profitability. But, Debenhams, one of the handful of retail chains who have been pursing a similar policy, says that it has had to accept the a cut in its own margins so far to make it work. The chain has replaced ?5m worth of Italian shirts and socks by British products during the past nine months.

  69. One of the aims of Think British campaign is to _____.

  A) cut exports

  B) stimulate imports

  C) develop new products

  D) encourage domestic industries

  70. Which of the following is true about nationalized industries?

  A) They bought £100m of British supplies in the past year.

  B) They bought £129m of foreign supplies in the past year.

  C) They bought £1,000m of British supplies in the past year.

  D) They bought £26m of foreign supplies in the past year.

  71. The British mining equipment industry is _____.

  A) privately owned

  B) publicly owned

  C) jointly owned

  D) internationally owned

  72. The word "this" (final paragraph) refers to _____.

  A) the public sector.

  B) the Think British campaign

  C) the British mining equipment industry

  D) reduced purchases of foreign goods

  TEXT C Just a few seconds of frenzied passion on the floor of the public bar and things would never be the same again for Michelle. It only took a few minutes to ruin her life. The end of all her hopes and dreams, her childhood and teenage innocence, all stripped away the first and only time she ever surrendered herself to a man. No one saw it happen, but the news spread fast, it wasnt long before the whole of Britain knew what had happened in the Queen Victoria —— Dirty Den, the landlord, had done it again. Only this time he had gone too far. For the millions who have agonized with her, Michelles pregnancy seems a terrible price to pay for one mistake —— a little youthful stupidity. Yet, with the increasing number of teenage single mums, its not just a problem dreamed up for a soap opera —— as actress Susan Tully, who plays Michelle, has discovered from hundreds of letters: Its a dilemma many young girls face. As she talks about Michelle and her baby, its easy to understand why Susan has been so successful in the role. Even though shed never had an experience like it herself, its one she recognizes all too clearly from what happens to some of her contemporaries at school. Michelle might almost be her younger sister rather than a fictional part in Britains most successful soap opera. Susan says that she never became involved with men during her school years because of her work. With her time being split equally between school and television studios, she was busy learning lines while her girlfriends were dating boys. While they went out to discuss and parties in the evening she was desperately catching up on her schoolwork. "I dont feel as though Ive missed out on anything," she insists. "And unlike a lot of my friends, Ive got plenty to look forward to. Thats whats so nice about my boyfriend now. Its very comfortable and theres lots to find out about each other." "Its then that I feel sad for Michelle. When she should be going out and having fun, shes having to worry about whether shes going to breastfeed the baby. Shes had to say goodbye to being a teenage."

  73. How did Susan avoid the dangers that many of her school friends faced?

  A) By thinking of Michelle as her younger sister.

  B) By doing many projects at home.

  C) By working hard at school and at the TV studio.

  D) By dating her boyfriend during her school years.

  74. According to the passage, Susan Tully is sorry for Michelle because Michelle has to _____.

  A) grow old quickly

  B) catch up on her schoolwork

  C) write many letters every day

  D) work late in the evening

  75. The best title for this passage is _____.

  A) Sorry for Susan Tully

  B) Sorry for Michelle

  C) Susan's School Years

  D) Susan's Hopes and Dreams

  TEXT D Helium is a gas that is lighter than air. It is the second lightest of all gases. (Only hydrogen is lighter.) Helium is inert, which means it will not react chemically with anything. It cannot burn. It has no color, odor, or taste. The first people who saw evidence of helium saw it as a bright yellow line in spectroscopes they aimed at the sun during the eclipse of 1868. They knew that they were seeing something new, and that the chemical element that caused the line in the spectroscope was unknown on earth. The unknown element was named helium, from the Greek word helios, meaning "sun". Later, in 1895, the same brilliant yellow line was seen coming from a Norwegian mineral which produces a little helium by its radioactivity. The line in the spectroscope was identified as caused by the gas helium. This element is the only one that was discovered off the earth before it was discovered in the earth. Almost all commercial helium is produced in the United States. The plants for separating helium from natural gas are in Texas, Kansas, and New Mexico. Most of the natural gas supplies are controlled by the government and administered by the United States Bureau of Mines. The government is interested in helium because the gas has military uses. Helium has been used for some time to inflate blimps, weather balloons, advertising balloons, and toy balloons. Helium is valuable for filling balloons because it does not burn, as hydrogen does. This prevents dangerous explosions. Recent uses of helium are far more important than any of these familiar uses. Now helium gas may be the cooling gas, or coolant, pumped through the reactors of some nuclear power plants to keep them from getting too hot. It is also used in electric arc welding because the gas does not combine with hot metal. helium is used, too, in rocket fuel tanks as a means of maintaining pressure during flight.

  76. The chemical element helium is named from the Greek word which means _____.

  A) light air

  B) yellow line

  C) sun

  D) earth

  77. Helium is valuable to nuclear power plants because it _____.

  A) is lighter than air

  B) may be used as a cooling gas

  C) does not combine with hot objects

  D) does not burn

  TEXT E When there is a vacancy in a company, it is the job of the Personnel Manager and his department to manage the recruitment of a new employee. One way an organization can find staff for job vacancies is to recruit in company. Management can inform people of new appointment by means of the firms notice board or news bulletin. Another possibility is to ask for recommendations from departmental managers and supervisors. If it is necessary to recruit outside the company, the personnel department may use commercial and government employment offices or consultants. It may prefer to put its own advertisement in a newspaper or magazine. It is usual for an advertisement to give a short description of the job, conditions of work and salary, and to invite introductory letters from applicants. After studying these, management decides who receives an application form. In order to assess the applications, managers can work from a personnel specification such as Rodgers Seven-Point Plan. They do not choose applicants who do not have a good profile. For this reason, it is important that the application form requests clear information about such things as the applicants age, education, qualifications and work experience. It must also ask for references from other employers or people who know the applicant well. This information helps management to make a final decision on the number of applicants they can short-list for interview. The staff who hold an interview together are called an interview "panel". It is important that they know what information they need to get from the applicants. This comes from a careful reading of job descriptions, personnel specifications, and applications. To help the panel in their selection, some companies use an interview assessment form. This is used by the panel during the interview when each applicant is checked under the same point of the form. Many employers say that the success of a good business begins in the Personnel Managers office.

  78. Which of the following means it NOT mentioned in the passage when recruiting staff outside the company?

  A) Consultants.

  B) Written examinations.

  C) Own advertisements.

  D) Government employment offices.

  79. What is Rodger's Seven-Point Plan?

  A) A recruitment advertisement.

  B) A personnel specification.

  C) A short description of the job.

  D) A managerial appointment.

  80. According to the passage, an interview assessment form is used by the panel to _____.

  A) inform people of new appointments

  B) ask for recommendations from managers

  C) study the applicant's age and education

  D) judge an applicant's performance during interviews


  In this section there are five passages with a total of ten multiple-choice questions.    Skim or scan them as required and then select your answers to the questions.

  TEXT F First read the following questions. 81. The authors main purpose in the passage is to _____. A. categorize tie different kinds of sharks B. warn humans of the dangers posed by sharks C. describe the characteristics of shark teeth D. clear up misconceptions about sharks 82. The longest shark is probably _____. A. the whale shark B. the great white shark C. the bull shark D. the tiger shark Now read Text F quickly and select your answers. Most people picture sharks as huge, powerful, frightening predators, ready at any moment to use their sharp teeth to attack unwary swimmers without provocations. There are numerous fallacies, however, in this conception of sharks. First, there are about 350 species of shark, and not all of them are large. They ranger in size from the dwarf shark, which can be only 6 inches long and can be held in the palm of the hand, to the whale shark, which can be more than 55 feet long. A second fallacy concerns the number and type of teeth, which can vary tremendously among the different species of shark. A shark can have from one to seven sets of teeth at the same time, and some types of shark can have several hundred teeth in each jaw. It is true that the fierce and predatory species do possess extremely sharp and brutal teeth used to rip their prey apart; many other types of shark, however, have teeth more adapted to grabbing and holding than to cutting and slashing. Finally, not all sharks are predatory animals ready to strike out at humans on the least whim. In fact, only 12 of the 350 species of shark have been known to attack humans, and a shark needs to be provoked in order to attack. The types of shark that have the worst record with humans are the tiger shark, the bull shark, and the great white shark. However, for most species of shark, even some of the largest types, there are no known instances of attacks on humans.

  81. The author's main purpose in the passage is to _____.

  A) categorize tie different kinds of sharks

  B) warn humans of the dangers posed by sharks

  C) describe the characteristics of shark teeth

  D) clear up misconceptions about sharks

  82. The longest shark is probably _____.

  A) the whale shark

  B) the great white shark

  C) the bull shark

  D) the tiger shark

  TEXT G First read the following questions. 83. Which of the following groups would be interested in this notice? A. The Vintage Car Collectors Club. B. The Association to Save Our Endangered Species. C. The Volunteer Librarians of America. D. The Citizens Group to Keep Our Cities Clean. 84. Receivers of a grant must contribute all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. unpaid time working on a project B. supplies for the project C. legal advice for the nonprofit group D. money for the work of the nonprofit group Now read Text G quickly and select your answers. Workshop to Focus on Grant Process Laura Chin will present a workshop Thursday showing nonprofit groups how to apply for NeighborGood grants to further their community work. The NeighborGood program will provide several grants, using 20,000 of the district offices community service funds and gifts of 5,000 each from Woodland Medical Center and Pavilion Insurance, Inc. May 18 is the application deadline for the second round of endowments, which are expected to be awarded twice each fiscal year. Thursdays workshop will deal with the application process and will answer questions about the program, which honors groups trying to beautify or improve their neighborhood. Chin established the matching grant program to encourage community volunteerism. Groups are required to match the grant amount with contributions of volunteer labor, materials, and cash. The workshop will begin at 10 a.m. at the 3rd District Council Office, 19040 Market Street. To obtain an application, call 1-800-555-3983.

  83. Which of the following groups would be interested in this notice?

  A) The Vintage Car Collectors Club.

  B) The Association to Save Our Endangered Species.

  C) The Volunteer Librarians of America.

  D) The Citizens Group to Keep Our Cities Clean.

  84. Receivers of a grant must contribute all of the following EXCEPT _____.

  A) unpaid time working on a project

  B) supplies for the project

  C) legal advice for the nonprofit group

  D) money for the work of the nonprofit group

  TEXT H First read the following questions. 85. Which of the following degrees does Winthrop University not offer? A. Bachelors degrees. B. Masters degrees. C. Postdoctoral degrees. D. Doctoral degrees. 86. The topic of the passage mainly concerns _____. A. the university facilities B. the surroundings of the university C. the academic programs D. the student body Now read Text H quickly and select your answers. Within the context of a competitive admissions policy, Winthrop University will enroll an achievement-oriented, culturally diverse and socially responsible student body, supported by a full array of services that are consistent with the best practices nationally. Successful undergraduate applicants will have demonstrated both academic competence and community involvement. Successful graduate applicants will have demonstrated ability for advanced study at the masters degree level and beyond. Winthrop will increasingly attract South Carolinas best students as well as those highly qualified students from beyond South Carolina whose presence will add to the diversity and enrichment of the student body. Winthrop will be an institution of choice for minority students who have demonstrated achievement through both traditional and non-traditional measures. Winthrop will enroll between 4,000 and 5,000 full-time undergraduates and 1,000 to 2,000 graduate students. Students will benefit from a challenging education offered in a residential setting. Winthrop will provide sufficient residence capacity to allow all freshmen and sophomores and most juniors and seniors to reside on campus.

  85. Which of the following degrees does Winthrop University not offer?

  A) Bachelor's degrees.

  B) Master's degrees.

  C) Postdoctoral degrees.

  D) Doctoral degrees.

  86. The topic of the passage mainly concerns _____.

  A) the university facilities

  B) the surroundings of the university

  C) the academic programs

  D) the student body

  TEXT I First read the following questions. 87. Why is Well Tip moving their conference from Seattle to Scottdale? A. They were unhappy with their hotel in Seattle. B. Conference attendees found it easier to travel to Scottdale. C. Most people wanted a nice place to play golf. D. They wanted to provide attendees with something different. 88. To meet Well Tips needs, Radcliff will have to have all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. business equipment B. conference rooms C. a golf course D. a convention hall Now read Text I quickly and select your answers. WELL TIP HEALTH PLAN, INC. 1130 Mountainview Avenue Denver, CO 07726 January 30, 200- Maria Reyes, Hotel Manager Radcliff Suites 2190 Gallop Way Scottsdale, AZ 08543 Dear Ms. Reyes, Our company is once again considering a location for Well Tips annual March conference. For the past five years, we have held our conference in downtown Seattle, but this year we would like to provide our participants with a completely different experience. We believe that Scottsdales relaxed atmosphere, scenic beauty, and warm climate will provide just that and also allow our guests and employees to enjoy such activities as golf, tennis, and horseback riding. Of course, our conference isnt all fun and games. Seminars will be held from 7 a.m. to 2 p.m. every day. We need at least six conference rooms, all equipped with computers, a fax machine, and a copy machine. We also need banquet facilities for two occasions for 150 guests. hotel shuttle service to and from the airport is also required. Please send me information regarding your hotel and conference facilities so we may determine if you have the facilities and equipment to meet our business needs. Please also send information regarding your amenities, including a fitness center, spa, swimming pool, and local sites and festivities. If you have any questions, please dont hesitate to call me at 555-6835. Yours sincerely, Albert Webster, Chairman

  87. Why is Well Tip moving their conference from Seattle to Scottdale?

  A) They were unhappy with their hotel in Seattle.

  B) Conference attendees found it easier to travel to Scottdale.

  C) Most people wanted a nice place to play golf.

  D) They wanted to provide attendees with something different.

  88. To meet Well Tip's needs, Radcliff will have to have all of the following EXCEPT _____.

  A) business equipment

  B) conference rooms

  C) a golf course

  D) a convention hall

  TEXT J First read the following questions. 89. What is the purpose of this memo? A. To notify employees of a facility change. B. To announce to the workers that someone has lost an article. C. To provide information on employee benefits. D. To provide guidelines for employee behavior. 90. What should an employee do if he or she is working late and wants to turn in a found article? A. Call 272-2345 for assistance. B. Take the article to the receptionists desk. C. Go to the lobby of Building 405. D. Bring the article to the guard gate. Now read Text J quickly and select your answers. Interoffice Memorandum To: All Employees Subject: Lost and Found From: Building Management Date: 12 October The Lost and Found office for Sites 3 and 4 is now located in the lobby of Building 405 at the receptionists desk. The office is open from 5:30 a.m. to 6 p.m., Monday through Wednesday, and 6:30 a.m. to 3:30 p.m. Thursday and Friday. The new telephone number is 272-7049. After hours, bring found articles only (no inquiries) to the guard gate. On weekends and holidays, call 272-2345 for assistance.

  89. What is the purpose of this memo?

  A) To notify employees of a facility change.

  B) To announce to the workers that someone has lost an article.

  C) To provide information on employee benefits.

  D) To provide guidelines for employee behavior.

  90. What should an employee do if he or she is working late and wants to turn in a found article?

  A) Call 272-2345 for assistance.

  B) Take the article to the receptionist's desk.

  C) Go to the lobby of Building 405.

  D) Bring the article to the guard gate.


  Listen to the following passage.    Altogether the passage will be read to you four times.    During the first reading, which will be read at normal speed, listen and try to understand the meaning.    For the second and third readings, the passage will be read sentence by sentence, or phrase by phrase, with intervals of 15 seconds.    The last reading will be read at normal speed again and during this time you should check your work.    You will then be given 2 minutes to check through your work once more.


  Write a composition of about 150 words on the following topic:

  ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF HOME COMPUTERS You are to write in three parts. In the first part, state just ONE major advantage or disadvantage of home computers. In the second part, give one or two reasons to support your point of view. In the last part, bring what you have written to a natural conclusion. Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy. Failure to follow these instructions may result in the loss of marks.

  SECTION B NOTE-WRITING [10 MIN.] Write a note of about 50-60 words based on the following situation: You want to have a job as an au pair locally. Write a piece of advertisement describing when you can start, what kind of housework you can do, how to contact, and some other important points. Marks will be awarded for content, organization, grammar and appropriacy.


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