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2006-02-13 00:00

  No. 6-1 SECTION 1

  1. The natural balance between prey and predator has been increasingly----, most frequently by human intervention.

  (A) celebrated (B) predicted (C) observed

  (D) disturbed (E) questioned

  2. There is some----the fact that the author of a book as sensitive and informed as Indian Artisans did not develop her interest in Native American art until adulthood, for she grew up in a region rich in American Indian culture.

  (A) irony in   (B) satisfaction in

  (C) doubt about  (D) concern about

  (E) presumptuousness in

  3. Ecology, like economics, concerns itself with the movement of valuable----through a complex network of producers and consumers.

  (A) commodities   (B) dividends

  (C) communications  (D) nutrients

  (E) artifacts

  4. Observable as a tendency of our culture is a --of --psychoanalysis: we no longer feel that it can solve our emotional problems.

  (A) divergence.. certainly about

  (B) confrontation.. enigmas in

  (C) withdrawal.. belief in

  (D) defense.. weaknesses in

  (E) failure.. rigor in

  5. The struggle of the generations is one of the obvious constants of human affairs; therefore, it may be presumptuous to suggest that the rivalry between young and old in Western society during the current decade is ----critical.

  (A) perennially  (B) disturbingly

  (C) uniquely  (D) archetypally

  (E) captiously

  6. Rhetoric often seems to----over reason in a heated debate, with both sides----in hyper- bole.

  (A) cloud.. subsiding (B) prevail.. yielding

  (C) triumph.. engaging

  (D) reverberate.. clamoring

  (E) trample.. tangling

  7. Melodramas, which presented stark oppositions between innocence and criminality, virtue and corruption, good and evil, were popular precisely because they offered the audience a world ----of----.

  (A) bereft.. theatricality

  (B) composed.. adversity

  (C) full.. circumstantiality

  (D) deprived.. polarity  (E) devoid.. neutrality


  (A) cultivate: crop   (B) quench: fire

  (C) marvel: infant   (D) secure: possession

  (E) delimit: obligation


  (A) brush: painter (B) typewriter: author

  (C) trowel: bricklayer (D) wagon: farmer

  (E) scissors: tailor


  (A) pedestal: statue (B) prologue: play

  (C) melody: song  (D) salutation: letter

  (E) motto: shield


  (A) babble: talk  (B) thought: blank

  (C) look: espy (D) leer: ogle  (E) wink: eye

  12. EGG: CHICKEN::

  (A) pearl: oyster  (B) roe: salmon

  (C) shell: clam  (D) skin: shark

  (E) tusk: walrus


  (A) delineate: disclaim (B) recede: abandon

  (C) recite: harangue  (D) muse: reflect

  (E) murmur: resound

  14. RESCIND: LAW::

  (A) postpone: performance

  (B) withdraw: candidacy

  (C) default: debt  (D) demote: hierarchy

  (E) retire: position


  (A) caution: fear  (B) compel: force

  (C) grill: question (D) replicate: copy

  (E) waver: adhere


  (A) sideshow: carnival

  (B) forgery: imitation

  (C) burlesque: comedy (D) ploy: tactic

  (E) nostrum: remedy

  A mysterious phenomenon is the ability of over-water migrants to travel on course. Birds, bees, and other species can keep track of time without any sensory cues from the outside world, and such "biological clocks" clearly con- tribute to their "compass sense." For example, they can use the position of the Sun or stars, along with the time of day, to find north. But compass sense alone cannot explain how birds navigate the ocean: after a flock traveling east is blown far south by a storm, it will assume the proper northeasterly course to compensate. Per- haps, some scientists thought, migrants deter- mine their geographic position on Earth by ce- lestial navigation, almost as human navigators use stars and planets, but this would demand of the animals a fantastic map sense. Researchers now know that some species have a magnetic sense, which might allow migrants to determine their geographic location by detecting variations in the strength of the Earth's magnetic field.

  17. The main idea of the passage is that

  (A) migration over land requires a simpler explanation than migration over water does

  (B) the means by which animals migrate over water are complex and only partly understood

  (C) the ability of migrant animals to keep track of time is related to their magnetic sense

  (D) knowledge of geographic location is essential to migrants with little or no compass sense

  (E) explanations of how animals migrate tend to replace, rather than build on, one another

  18. It can be inferred from the passage that if the flock of birds described in lines 8-12 were navigating by compass sense alone, they would, after the storm, fly

  (A) east (B) north   (C) northwest

  (D) south (E) southeast

  19.In maintaining that migrating animals would need "a fantastic map sense" (line 17) to determine their geographic position by celestial navigation, the author intends to express

  (A) admiration for the ability of the migrants

  (B) skepticism about celestial navigation as an explanation

  (C) certainly that the phenomenon of migration will remain mysterious

  (D) interest in a new method of accounting for over-water migration

  (E) surprise that animals apparently navigate in much the same way that human beings do

  20. Of the following descriptions of migrating animals, which most strongly suggests that the animals are depending on magnetic cues to orient themselves?

  (A) Pigeons can properly readjust their course even when flying long distances through exceedingly dense fogs.

  (B) Bison are able to reach their destination by passing through a landscape that has been partially altered by a recent fire.

  (C) Elephants are able to find grounds that some members of the herd have never seen before.

  (D) Swallows are able to return to a given spot at the same time every year.

  (E) Monarch butterflies coming from different parts of North America are able to arrive at the same location each winter.

  Roger Rosenblatt's book Black Fiction, in attempt ing to apply literary rather than sociopolitical criteria to its subject, successfully alters the approach taken by most previous studies. As Rosenblatt notes, criticism of Black writing has often served as a pretext for ex- pounding on Black history. Addison Gayle's recent work, for example, judges the value of Black fiction by overtly political standards, rating each work ac- cording to the notions of Black identity which it propounds.

  Although fiction assuredly springs from political circumstances, its authors react to those circumstances in ways other than ideological, and talking about novels and stories primarily as instruments of idology circumvents much of the fictional enterprise. Rosen- blatt's literary analysis discloses affinities and con- nections among works of Black fiction which solely political studies have overlooked or ignored.

  Writing acceptable criticism of Black fiction, how- ever, presupposes giving satisfactory answers to a number of questions. First of all, is there a sufficient reason, other than the racial identity of the authors, to group together works by Black authors? Second, how does Black fiction make itself distinct from other modern fiction with which it is largely contempora- neous? Rosenblatt shows that Black fiction constitutes a distinct body of writing that has an identifiable, coherent literary tradition. Looking at novels written by Blacks over the last eighty years, he discovers re- curring concerns and designs independent of chronol- ogy. These structures are thematic, and they spring, not surprisingly, from the central fact that the Black characters in these novels exist in a predominantly White culture, whether they try to conform to that culture of rebel against it.

  Black Fiction does leave some aesthetic questions open. Rosenblatt's thematic analysis permits consider- able objectivity; he even explicitly states that it is not his intention to judge the merit of the various works- yet his reluctance seems misplaced, especially since an attempt to appraise might have led to interesting results. For instance, some of the novels appear to be structurally diffuse. Is this a defect, or are the authors working out of, or trying to forge, a different kind of aesthetic? In addition, the style of some Black novels, like Jean Toomer's Cane, verges on expressionism or surrealism; does this technique provide a counterpoint to the prevalent theme that portrays the fate against which Black heroes are pitted, a theme usually con- veyed by more naturalistic modes of expression? In spite of such omissions, what Rosenblatt does include in his discussion makes for an astute and worthwhile study. Black Fiction surveys a wide variety of novels, bringing to our attention in the process some fascinating and little-known works like James Weldon Johnson's Autobiography of an Ex-Colored Man. Its argument is tightly constructed, and its forthright, lucid style exemplifies levelheaded and penetrating criticism.

  21. The author of the passage objects to criticism of Black fiction like that by Addison Gayle because it

  (A) emphasizes purely literary aspects of such fiction

  (B) misinterprets the ideological content of such fiction

  (C) misunderstands the notions of Black identity contained in such fiction

  (D) substitutes political for literary criteria in evaluating such fiction

  (E) ignores the interplay between Black history and Black identity displayed in such fiction

  22. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

  (A) evaluating the soundness of a work of criticism

  (B) comparing various critical approaches to a subject

  (C) discussing the limitations of a particular kind of criticism

  (D) summarizing the major points made in a work of criticism

  (E) explaining the theoretical background of a certain kind of criticism

  23. The author of the passage believes that Black Fiction would have been improved had Rosenblatt

  (A) evaluated more carefully the ideological and historical aspects of Black fiction

  (B) attempted to be more objective in his approach to novels and stories by Black authors

  (C) explored in greater detail the recurrent thematic concerns of Black fiction throughout its history

  (D) established a basis for placing Black fiction within its own unique literary tradition

  (E) assessed the relative literaray merit of the novels he analyzes thematically

  24. The author's discussion of Black Fiction can be best described as

  (A) pedantic and contentious

  (B) critical but admiring

  (C) ironic and deprecating

  (D) argumentative but unfocused

  (E) stilted and insincere

  25. It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be LEAST likely to approve of which of the following?

  (A) An analysis of the influence of political events on the personal ideology of Black writes

  (B) A critical study that applies sociopolitical criteria to autobiographies by Black authors

  (C) A literary study of Black poetry that appraises the merits of poems according to the political acceptability of their themes

  (D) An examination of the growth of a distinct Black literary tradition within the context of Black history

  (E) A literary study that attempts to isolate aesthetic qualities unique to Black fiction

  26. The author of the passage uses all of the following in the discussion of Rosenblatt's book EXCEPT

  (A) rhetorical questions

  (B) specific examples

  (C) comparison and contrast

  (D) definition of terms

  (E) personal opinion

  27. The author of the passage refers to James Weldon Johnson's Autobiography of an Ex- Colored Man most probably in order to

  (A) point out affinities between Rosenblatt's method of thematic analysis and earlier criticism

  (B) clarify the point about expressionistic style made earlier in the passage

  (C) qualify the assessment of Rosenblatt's book made in the first paragraph of the passage

  (D) illustrate the affinities among Black novels disclosed by Rosenblatt's literary analysis

  (E) give a specific example of one of the accomplishments of Rosenblatt's work


  (A) bounded space (B) physical repulsion

  (C) inadequate measurement

  (D) weak charge  (E) small miscalculation

  29. TRUCE:

  (A) resumed fighting  (B) false pretenses

  (C) genuine grievances

  (D) nonmilitary service

  (E) tactical error

  30. DAMPED:

  (A) phonetic (B) flexible (C) amplified

  (D) concentrated  (E) variable


  (A) obverse  (B) extensive   (C) serial

  (D) pacific  (E) deflated

  32. LUCID:

  (A) vague  (B) cynical   (C) tedious

  (D) unreliable (E) improper


  (A) pomposity  (B) sterility

  (C) awkwardness  (D) careful organization

  (E) calm restraint


  (A) deductive (B) meaningful  (C) steadfast

  (D) limited   (E) straightforward


  (A) overwrought  (B) long-winded

  (C) pompous (D) energetic   (E) adept


  (A) gently inclined (B) logically accurate

  (C) surmountable  (D) sparse (E) direct

  37. TOUT:

  (A) placate   (B) misrepresent

  (C) withhold consent   (D) cast aspersions on

  (E) deny the relevance of

  38. PROMPT:

  (A) betray   (B) check   (C) sway

  (D) complicate (E) defer


  Questions 1-4

  Seven meetings-J, K, L, M, N, O, and P-are to be scheduled, one on each day of a week that begins on Sunday.

  Meeting J must take place on Sunday.

  Meeting K must take place after both meeting L and meeting M.

  Meetings N, O, and P must take place on three consecutive days, not necessarily in that order.

  1. Which is the latest day of the week on which meeting L can take place?

  (A) Tuesday   (B) Wednesday (C) Thursday

  (D) Friday   (E) Saturday

  2. Which of the following must be true about the order of meetings?

  (A) L takes place after J.

  (B) L takes place after O.

  (C) N takes place after O.

  (D) N takes place after P.

  (E) O takes place after P.

  3. If meeting O is on Saturday, then meeting K must take place on

  (A) Monday   (B) Tuesday   (C) Wednesday

  (D) Thursday (E) Friday

  4. Which of the following represents a possible ordering of meetings on three consecutive days?

  (A) JMK (B) KLO   (C) MNJ

  (D) OJN (E) POM

  5. As a practical matter, the copper available for industrial use should not be thought of as limited by the quantity of copper deposits, known or unknown. The transmutation of one chemical element into another is a modern reality, through the methods of nuclear physics. Therefore, the quantity of a natural resource such as copper cannot be calculated even in principle, because copper can be made from other metals.

  Which of the following, if true, is the strongest argument against the argument above?

  (A) Although it is possible that additional deposits of copper will be found, geological considerations strongly indicate that they will not amount to more than a fifty-year supply.

  (B) The production of copper from other metals in industrial quantities would be prohibitively expensive in energy and materials.

  (C) Synthetic materials have been discovered that can serve as practical substitutes for copper in most of its uses.

  (D) It will be impractical, in the foreseeable future, to mine any deposits of metal that may exist on the Moon or on other planets.

  (E) Methods for estimating the amount of copper available in currently known deposits have become very sophisticated and have proved quite accurate.

  6.The world's annual food production slightly exceeds the amount of food required to provide a minimally adequate diet for the world's population. To predict that insufficient food production will cause a hunger crisis in the future is nonsense. Any hunger crisis will result from a distribution problem rather than a production problem.

  The statement above assumes which of the following?

  (A) The world's food requirements are greater than they will be in the future.

  (B) A shortfall in the world's food production can be prevented by a better distribution system.

  (C) The world's food production will continue to be sufficient to meet or exceed needs.

  (D) The distribution of the world's existing food supply will be improved in the future.

  (E) The world hunger crisis will not exist in the future.

  7. Psychological maladjustment in children is caused by the stress of the birthing process as is proved by the  discovery of a positive relation- ship between the duration of the mother's labor and the amount of time the child spent crying in the first month of life.

  Which of the following, if true, LEAST damages the author's assertion?

  (A) There is no relationship between the amount of time spent crying and psychological maladjustment.

  (B) Behavior indicative of psychological malad- justment does not appear until the third month of a child's life.

  (C) From the infant's point of view, a hurried labor is more stressful than a gradual, slow delivery.

  (D) The estimates of the duration of labor were based on obstetricians' estimates of the time of the onset of labor.

  (E) The infants who have experienced the greatest stress during birth are often too weak to cry for extended periods of time.

  Questions 8-13

  The directors of a museum are mounting an exhibi- tion of paintings in a space temporarily partitioned into exactly seven rooms-R, S, T, U X, Y, and Z. Visitors reach room R by an elevator, and they can enter and leave the exhibition only through room R. Once inside, visitors are free to move as they choose from room to room. The following list includes all of the doorways that connect the seven rooms:

  There is a doorway between R and S, a doorway between R and T, and a doorway between R and X.

  There is a doorway between S and T.

  There is a doorway between X and U and a doorway between X and Y.

  There is a doorway between Y and Z.

  8. Which of the following rooms CANNOT be the third room of the exhibition that any visitor enters?

  (A) S (B) T (C) U (D) Y (E) Z

  9. Which of the following is a room that a visitor must enter before entering room U?

  (A) S (B) T (C) X (D) Y (E) Z

  10. If one of the doorways between two exhibition rooms is to be closed off, and yet all rooms are to remain accessible to visitors, the closed-off doorway can be a doorway allowing passage to which of the following rooms?

  (A) R  (B) U  (C) X (D) Y (E) Z

  11. If a visitor to the exhibition enters no room more often than necessary to visit all of the rooms and then leaves the exhibition, which of the following rooms must the visitor enter exactly twice?

  (A) R  (B) S (C) T (D) X (E) Y

  12. After stopping to rest in Z, a visitor goes from Z to T, passing through no more rooms than necessary. On reaching T, the visitor will have passed through a total of how many rooms (counting neither Z nor T) since the rest stop?

  (A) 2   (B) 3   (C) 4   (D) 5   (E) 6

  13. Which of the following proposed new doorways would make it possible for a visitor to begin at R and visit all the rest of the rooms, arriving last at Z, without having entered any of the rooms in the exhibition twice?

  (A) R-U (B) S-Z   (C) T-U  (D) U-Y

  (E) U-Z

  Questions 14-18

  Each perfume made by a manufacturer is a mixture of two or more essences selected from a stock of exactly five different essences labeled F, G, H, J, and K. The manufacturer has learned that a formula for a perfume is acceptable if and only if it does not violate any of the rules listed below.

  If the perfume contains F, it must also contain H, and there must be twice as much H as F.

  If the perfume contains G, it must also contain J, and the amount of J must equal the amount of G.

  H cannot be used in combination with J.

  J cannot be used in combination with K.

  If the perfume contains K, the amount of K must be greater than the total amount of the other essence or essences used.

  14. Which of the following is an acceptable formula for a perfume?

  (A) One part F, one part K

  (B) Two parts G, two parts F

  (C) Three parts H four parts F

  (D) Four parts J, four parts G

  (E) Five parts K, five parts G

  15. The addition of more H could make which of the following formulas for perfumes acceptable?

  (A) One part F, one part H, five parts K

  (B) Two parts F, two parts H, two parts K

  (C) One part G, one part H, one part K

  (D) Two parts G, one part H, four parts K

  (E) Two parts H, one part J, there parts K

  16. Which of the following could be added to an unacceptable perfume consisting of two parts H and one part K to make it acceptable?

  (A) One part F  (B) One part G

  (C) Two parts H  (D) One part J

  (E) Two parts K

  17. Each of the following is a pair of essences that can be used together in an acceptable perfume consisting of two or more essences EXCEPT

  (A) F and G  (B) F and H (C) F and K

  (D) G and J  (E) K and H

  18. Which of the following formulas for perfumes could be made acceptable by removing some or all of one essence?

  (A) One part F, one part G, one part H, four parts K

  (B) One part F, two parts H, one part J, four parts K

  (C) One part F, one part G, one part J, one part K

  (D) Two parts F, two parts H, one part J, two parts K

  (E) Two parts G, one part H, two parts J, three parts K

  Questions 19-22

  Eight adjacent offices completely enclose a circular central courtyard. The offices are numbered consec- cutively, beginning at one of the offices with 1 and proceeding clockwise to 8. Eight junior executives- J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and R-are to occupy the offices, one to an office. The assignment of offices is subject to the following restrictions:

  J is allowed first choice of any of the offices.

  K and P must be assigned to adjacent offices.

  L and P must be assigned to adjacent offices.

  M and O must be assigned to adjacent offices.

  M and N cannot be assigned to adjacent offices.

  O is assigned to office 2 unless J chooses it; in that case, O will be assigned to office 3.

  K is assigned to office 7 unless J chooses it; in that case, K will be assigned to office 5.

  19. Which of the following is an assignment of executives to offices, beginning with office 1 and proceeding consecutively to office 8, that conforms to the restrictions above?

  (A) J, O, M, R, L, P, K, N

  (B) J, R, O, M, L, P, K, N

  (C) M, O, N, K, P, L, R, J

  (D) M, O, R, J, L, K, P, N

  (E) N, J, O, M, K, P, L, R

  20. If J chooses office 8, which of the following must be true?

  (A) L is assigned to office 5.

  (B) M is assigned to office 1.

  (C) M is assigned to office 3.

  (D) N is assigned to office 1.

  (E) R is assigned to office 1.

  21. P could be assigned to which of the following offices?

  (A) 1   (B) 2   (C) 3   (D) 4   (E) 5

  22. If N is assigned to office 5, which of the following can be true?

  (A) L is assigned to office 3.

  (B) M is assigned to office 4.

  (C) O is assigned to office 3.

  (D) P is assigned to office 1.

  (E) R is assigned to office 6.

  23. Found in caves with the bones of australo- pithecines, which are thought by some to be ancient ancestors of the human species, were great collections of animal bones. From the fre- quencies of types of bones, it can be seen that many bones represented only parts of animals that must have died elsewhere. The australo- pithecines thus must have been mighty hunters, to have brought home so much meat.

  Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn above?

  (A) The australopithcines sometimes moved from cave to cave for shelter and did not remain in one cave for a lifetime.

  (B) The australopithecine bones found in the caves were those of adult males, adult females, and juveniles.

  (C) Evidence of the use of fire was absent from the caves in which the collections of bones were found.

  (D) Marks on the bones, including the bones of the australopitecines, are consistent with teeth marks of large catlike animals of the period.

  (E) The bones in the cave did not include bones of an elephantlike animal that existed in the area at the time of the australo-pithecines.

  24. During the Second World War, fighter pilots watched for enemies in the sky by direct visual perception. The pilots had to turn their heads frequently in order to look to their rear, and so calisthenics to develop neck muscles were part of their training. Today, with electronic instru- ments, pilots never need to look to the rear. Their ability to detect slight changes on elec- tronic dials and gauges is more significant than their keenness of long-distance vision or their developed musculature.

  The information above best supports which of the following conclusions?

  (A) The reliance on increasingly sophisticated electronic instruments in air combat situations will soon make human pilots superfluous.

  (B) Visual acuity is of little help in air combat today because of the terrific speeds at which modern aircraft approach each other.

  (C) Fitness with regard to military service must always be defined in terms of the demands combat situations place on combatants.

  (D) The performance of pilots will necessarily decline if the strenuous physical conditioning programs employed in the past are not continued.

  (E) Revisions of military training programs at frequent intervals can guarantee adapt- ability to the demands of future combat situations.

  25. Some United States psychologists have concluded that one specific set of parental behaviors toward children always signifies acceptance and a second set always signifies rejection, for there is remarkable agreement among investigators about the maternal behaviors designated as indicative of these parental attitudes.

  The conclusion of the psychologists mentioned above logically depends on the assumption that

  (A) most maternal behaviors have been interpreted as conveying either acceptance or rejection

  (B) the maternal behaviors indicating acceptance or rejection are exhibited by fathers as well

  (C) the behaviors of fathers toward children have been studied as carefully as have the behaviors of mothers

  (D) acceptance and rejection are the easiest to recognize of all parental behaviors

  (E) parental attitudes are best conveyed through behaviors that the parents have consciously agreed on


  1. In the current research program, new varieties of apple trees are evaluated under different agricultural----for tree size, bloom density, fruit size, ----to various soils, and resistance to pests and disease.

  (A) circumstances.. proximity

  (B) regulations.. conformity

  (C) conditions.. adaptability

  (D) auspices.. susceptibility

  (E) configurations.. propensity

  2. At first, I found her gravity rather intimidating; but, as I saw more of her, I found that----was very near the surface.

  (A) seriousness (B) confidence   (C) laughter

  (D) poise  (E) determination

  3. Even though in today's Soviet Union the---- the Muslim clergy have been accorded power and privileges, the Muslim laity and the rank- and-file clergy still have little----to practice their religion.

  (A) practitioners among.. opportunity

  (B) dissidents within.. obligation

  (C) adversaries of.. inclination

  (D) leaders of.. latitude

  (E) traditionalists among.. incentive

  4. The proponents of recombinant DNA research have decided to----federal regulation of their work; they hope that by making this compro mise they can forestall proposed state and local controls that might be even stiffer.

  (A) protest   (B) institute    (C) deny

  (D) encourage (E) disregard

  5. It is to the novelist's credit that all of the episodes in her novel are presented realistically, without any----or playful supernatural tricks.

  (A) elucidation   (B) discrimination

  (C) artlessness   (D) authenticity

  (E) whimsy

  6. Our new tools of systems analysis, powerful though they may be, lead to----theories, especially, and predictably, in economics and political science, where productive approaches have long been highly----.

  (A) pragmatic.. speculative

  (B) inelegant.. efficacious

  (C) explanatory.. intuitional

  (D) wrongheaded.. convergent

  (E) simplistic.. elusive

  7. Nineteenth-century scholars, by examining earlier geometric Greek art, found that classical Greek art was not a magical----or a brilliant---- blending Egyptian and Assyrian art, but was independently evolved by Greeks in Greece.

  (A) stratagem.. appropriation

  (B) exemplar.. synthesis

  (C) conversion.. annexation

  (D) paradigm.. construct

  (E) apparition.. amalgam


  (A) resentful: gratitude

  (B) perplexed: clarification

  (C) inured: imagination

  (D) vociferous: suppression

  (E) abstemious: indulgence


  (A) pirouette: ballet   (B) rhyme: verse

  (C) duet: chorus    (D) act: opera

  (E) mimicry: pantomime


  (A) book: title    (B) officer: rank

  (C) house: architecture

  (D) doctor: profession

  (E) tree: wood


  (A) condense: illusive   (B) alter: remarkable

  (C) train: clumsy  (D) adulterate: pure

  (E) refine: unique


  (A) assessment: taxes  (B) computer: programs

  (C) insurance: risks  (D) resume: careers

  (E) dossier: reports


  (A) crave: accept  (B) goad: direct

  (C) instruct: teach (D) tamper: adjust

  (E) conspire: plan


  (A) glass: china  (B) fire: ash  (C) slag: iron

  (D) flax: linen (E) sand: sediment


  (A) argument: logic (B) baseball: athletics

  (C) word: language (D) student: pedagogy

  (E) album: philately


  (A) gas: molecules (B) volume: liquid

  (C) crystal: atoms (D) interaction: reagents

  (E) stratum: layer

  The molecules of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere affect the heat balance of the Earth by acting as a one-way screen. Although these molecules allow radiation at visible wavelengths, where most of the energy of sunlight is concentrated, to pass through, they absorb some of the longer-wavelength, infrared emissions radiated from the Earth's surface, radiation that would otherwise be transmitted back into space. For the Earth to maintain a constant aver- age temperature, such emissions from the planet must balance incoming solar radiation. If there were no car-bon dioxide in the atmosphere, heat would escape from the Earth much more easily. The surface temper- ature would be so much lower that the oceans might be a solid mass of ice.

  Today, however, the potential problem is too much carbon dioxide. The burning of fossil fuels and the clearing of forests have increased atmospheric carbon dioxide by about 15 percent in the last hundred years, and we continue to add carbon dioxide to the atmo- sphere. Could the increase in carbon dioxide cause a global rise in average temperature, and could such a rise have serious consequences for human society? Mathematical models that allow us to calculate the rise in temperature as a function of the increase indicate that the answer is probably yes. Under present conditions a temperature-of--18℃can be observed at an altitude of 5 to 6 kilometers above the Earth. Below this altitude (called the radiating level), the temperature increases by about 6℃ per kilometer approaching the Earth's surface, where the average temperature is about 15℃. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide means that there are more molecules of carbon dioxide to absorb infrared radiation. As the capacity of the atmosphere to absorb infrared radiation increases, the radiating level and the temperature of the surface must rise. One mathematical model predicts that doubling the atmospheric carbon dioxide would raise the global mean surface temperature by 2.5℃. This model assumes that the atmosphere's relative humidity remains constant and the temperature decreases with altitude at a rate of 6.5℃ per kilometer. The assump- tion of constant relative humidity is important, because water vapor in the atmosphere is another effi- cient absorber of radiation at infrared wavelengths. Because warm air can hold more moisture than cool air, the relative humidity will be constant only if the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere increases as the temperature rises. Therefore, more infrared radia- tion would be absorbed and reradiated back to the Earth's surface. The resultant warming at the surface could be expected to melt snow and ice, reducing the Earth's reflectivity. More solar radiation would then be absorbed, leading to a further increase in tem- perature.

  17. The primary purpose of the passage is to

  (A) warn of the dangers of continued burning of fossil fuels

  (B) discuss the significance of increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

  (C) explain how a constant temperature is maintained on the Earth's surface

  (D) describe the ways in which various atmospheric and climatic conditions contribute to the Earth's weather

  (E) demonstrate the usefulness of mathematical models in predicting long-range climatic change

  18. According to the passage, the greatest part of the solar energy that reaches the Earth is

  (A) concentrated in the infrared spectrum

  (B) concentrated at visible wavelengths

  (C) absorbed by carbon dioxide molecules

  (D) absorbed by atmospheric water vapor

  (E) reflected back to space by snow and ice

  19. According to the passage, atmospheric carbon dioxide performs all of the following functions


  (A) absorbing radiation at visible wavelengths

  (B) absorbing infrared radiation

  (C) absorbing outgoing radiation from the Earth

  (D) helping to retain heat near the Earth's surface

  (E) helping to maintain a constant average temperature on the Earth's surface

  20. Which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward the increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and its consequences?

  (A) Incredulous  (B) Completely detached

  (C) Interested but skeptical

  (D) Angry yet resigned

  (E) Objective yet concerned

  21. It can be concluded from information contained in the passage that the average temperature at an altitude of 1 kilometer above the Earth is about

  (A) 15℃  (B) 9℃  (C) 2.5℃

  (D) -12℃  (E) -18℃

  22. It can be inferred from the passage that the construction of the mathematical model mentioned in the passage involved the formulation of which of the following?

  (A) An assumption that the amount of carbon dioxide added to the atmosphere would in reality steadily increase

  (B) An assumption that human activities are the only agencies by which carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere

  (C) Assumptions about the social and political consequences of any curtailment of the use of fossil fuels

  (D) Assumptions about the physical conditions that are likely to prevail during the period for which the model was made

  (E) Assumptions about the differential behavior of carbon dioxide molecules at the various levels of temperature calculated in the model

  23. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the last hundred years?

  (A) Fossil fuels were burned for the first time.

  (B) Greater amounts of land were cleared than at any time before.

  (C) The average temperature at the Earth's surface has become 2℃ cooler.

  (D) The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased measurably.

  (E) The amount of farmland worldwide has doubled.

  Some modern anthropologists hold that biological evolution has shaped not only human morphology but also human behavior. The role those anthropologists ascribe to evolution is not of dictating the details of human behavior but one of imposing constraints- ways of feeling, thinking, and acting that "come natu- rally" in archetypal situations in any culture. Our "frailties" -emotions and motives such as rage, fear, greed, gluttony, joy, lust, love-may be a very mixed assortment, but they share at least one immediate quality: we are, as we say, "in the grip" of them. And thus they give us our sense of constraints.

  Unhappily, some of those frailties-our need for ever-increasing security among them-are presently maladaptive. Yet beneath the overlay of cultural detail, they, too, are said to be biological in direction, and therefore as natural to us as are our appendixes. We would need to comprehend thoroughly their adap- adaptive origins in order to understand how badly they guide us now. And we might then begin to resist their pressure.

  24. The primary purpose of the passage is to present

  (A) a position on the foundations of human behavior and on what those foundations imply

  (B) a theory outlining the parallel development of human morphology and of human behavior

  (C) a diagnostic test for separating biologically determined behavior patterns from culture-specific detail

  (D) a practical method for resisting the pressures of biologically determined drives

  (E) an overview of those human emotions and motives that impose constraints on human behavior

  25. The author implies that control to any extent over the "frailties" that constrain our behavior is thought to presuppose

  (A) that those frailties are recognized as currently beneficial and adaptive

  (B) that there is little or no overlay of cultural detail that masks their true nature

  (C) that there are cultures in which those frailties do not "come naturally" and from which such control can be learned

  (D) a full understanding of why those frailties evolved and of how they function now

  (E) a thorough grasp of the principle that cultural detail in human behavior can differ arbitrarily from society to society

  26. Which of the following most probably provides an appropriate analogy from human morphol- ogy for the "details" versus "constraints" distinction made in the passage in relation to human behavior?

  (A) The ability of most people to see all the colors of the visible spectrum as against most people's inability to name any but the imary colors

  (B) The ability of even the least fortunate people to show compassion as against people's inability to mask their feelings completely

  (C) The ability of some people to dive to great depths as against most people's inability to swim long distances

  (D) The psychological profile of those people who are able to delay gratification as against people's inability to control their lives completely

  (E) The greater lung capacity of mountain peoples that helps them live in oxygen-poor air as against people's inability to fly without special apparatus

  27. It can be inferred that in his discussion of maladaptive frailties the author assumes that

  (A) evolution does not favor the emergence of adaptive characteristics over the emergence of maladaptive ones

  (B) any structure or behavior not positively adaptive is regarded as transitory in evolutionary theory

  (C) maladaptive characteristics, once fixed, make the emergence of other maladaptive characteristics more likely

  (D) the designation of a characteristic as being maladaptive must always remain highly tentative

  (E) changes in the total human environment can outpace evolutionary change

  28. PRESS:

  (A) excel (B) desire   (C) act   (D) require

  (E) withdraw


  (A) punishment    (B) verdict  (C) corrosion

  (D) guilt (E) conflict


  (A) criticize  (B) simplify   (C) imbue

  (D) expel  (E) confuse


  (A) inequality  (B) inconstancy

  (C) irrelevance  (D) incompetence

  (E) intemperance


  (A) plausibility   (B) audacity    (C) reason

  (D) argument   (E) conviction


  (A) by-product    (B) low-grade ore

  (C) inert material  (D) inorganic substance

  (E) nonradioactive element

  34. CODA:

  (A) prelude  (B) crescendo   (C) solo

  (D) refrain  (E) improvisation


  (A) useful  (B) admissible  (C) ornate

  (D) meticulous (E) original


  (A) harden by drying   (B) influence by lying

  (C) cover by painting  (D) cure by medicating

  (E) assess by observing

  37. GLIB:

  (A) illiterate  (B) inexplicit   (C) verbose

  (D) perfunctory (E) labored

  38. IMPUGN:

  (A) revoke   (B) discharge (C) champion

  (D) console   (E) restore


  Questions 1-3

  In a small hotel, one or more of the chefs are assigned to breakfast duty each day. The chefs are Romain, Simone, and Therese. No chef can be assigned to breakfast duty two or more days in a row.

  1. If Simone and Threse share breakfast duty three times over a five-day period, which of the following must be true?

  (A) Romain is on breakfast duty alone on the first of the five days.

  (B) Romain is on breakfast duty alone on the second of the five days.

  (C) Romain is on breakfast duty alone on the third of the five days.

  (D) Simone and Therese share breakfast duty on the second of the five days.

  (E) Simone and Therese share breakfast duty on the fourth of the five days.

  2. If Romain and Simone share breakfast duty on Wednesday of some week, and if Simone and Therese share breakfast duty on Saturday of the same week, which of the following must be true for that week?

  (A) Simone is on breakfast duty alone on Thursday.

  (B) Therese is on breakfast duty alone on Friday.

  (C) Romain and Therese share breakfast duty on Friday.

  (D) Romain is on breakfast duty alone on Thursday, and Simone is on breakfast duty alone on Friday.

  (E) Therese is on breakfast duty alone on Thursday, and Romain is on breakfast duty alone on Friday.

  3. Which of the following could be true of some four-day period?

  (A) On three of the four days; pairs of chefs were on breakfast duty.

  (B) On one of the dour days, all three chefs were on breakfast duty.

  (C) Simone drew twice as many breakfast assignments as did Therese.

  (D) Romain drew three times as many break- fast assignments as did Simone.

  (E) Both Romain and Simone drew three times as many breakfast assignments as did Therese.

  4. Some geologists argue that if oil is as common in unsampled areas of the world as it is in those already sampled, our current estimate of reserves that exist underground must be multi- plied by a factor of 10,000. From this we can conclude that we can meet the oil needs of the entire world for at least five centuries, even assuming that future consumption grows at an accelerating rate.

  To reach the stated conclusion, the author must assume which of the following?

  (A) It is possible to recover the oil contained in unexplored areas of the world.

  (B) The consumption rate for oil will not grow rapidly.

  (C) Oil will remain an important energy source for at least 500 years.

  (D) The world will achieve and maintain zero population growth.

  (E) New technology will make oil discovery and drilling more feasible than ever before.

  5. Approximately 5,000 people who have been convicted of nonviolent crimes in the state have been given community-service sentences instead of prison sentences. These offenders perform services commensurate with their training and skills, from scrubbing floors to conducting research for the state. The community-service program, which began in 1979, has grown im- mensely as a result of drunken-driver legislation enacted a few months ago.

  The introduction of the community-service program in 1979 was most probably prompted by which of the following, all of which occurred during the1970's?

  (A) A decrease in the number of violent crimes in the state

  (B) An increase in the number of crimes com- mitted by employees of the state

  (C) A gradual decrease in the median age of judges in the state

  (D) The overcrowding of prisons in the state

  (E) The passage of drunken-driver legislation in other states

  6. The nuclear polyhedrosis virus helps control gypsy moth populations by killing the moth's larvae. The virus is always present in the larvae, but only every sixth or seventh year does the virus seriously decimate the numbers of larvae, thereby drastically setting back the gypsy moth population. Scientists believe that the virus, ordinarily latent, is triggered only when the larvae experience biological stress.

  If the scientists mentioned above are correct, it can be inferred that the decimation of gypsy moth larvae populations by the nuclear poly- edrosis virus would be most likely to be trig- gered by which of the following conditions?

  (A) A shift from drought conditions to normal precipitation in areas infested by gypsy moths

  (B) The escalating stress of defoliation sus- tained by trees attacked by gypsy moths for the second consecutive year

  (C) Predation on larvae of all kinds by parasitic wasps and flies

  (D) Starvation of the gypsy moth larvae as a result of overpopulation

  (E) Spraying of areas infested by gypsy moths with laboratory-raised nuclear polyhe-drosis virus

  Questions 7-12

  Each of six pegs-P, Q, R, S, T, and U-is placed in a different one of seven holes numbered consecu- tively 1 through 7 from left to right. The holes are evenly spaced and arranged in a straight line. The placement of the pegs is subject only to the following conditions:

  The distance separating P from Q must be the same as the distance separating R from S.

  T must be in a hole immediately adjacent to the hole that U is in.

  The leftmost hole cannot be the hole that is left empty.

  7. Which of the following is a placement of pegs in holes 1 through 7, respectively, in conformity with the conditions above?

  (A) Q, empty hole, P, T, U, S, R

  (B) Q, R, empty hole, S, P, U, T

  (C) S, T, Q, R, U, empty hole, P

  (D) S, U, T, P, R, empty hole, Q

  (E) S, R, U, T, P, Q, empty hole

  8. If U is in hole 2, which of the following must be true?

  (A) P is in hole 3. (B) Q is in hole 4.

  (C) R is in hole 5. (D) S is in hole 7.

  (E) T is in hole 1.

  9. If U, P, and R are in holes 5, 6, and 7, respectively, which of the following must be true?

  (A) S is in hole 1. (B) S is in hole 2.

  (C) Q is in hole 2. (D) Q is in hole 3.

  (E) Hole 2 is the empty hole.

  10. If P and R are in holes 1 and 3, respectively, the empty hole must be either

  (A) 2 or 4  (B) 2 or 6 (C) 4 or 5

  (D) 5 or 7 (E) 6 or 7

  11. If P and Q are in holes 2 and 4, respectively, which of the following could be true?

  (A) R is in hole 3. (B) R is in hole 5.

  (C) S is in hole 6.  (D) U is in hole 1.

  (E) Hole 6 is the empty hole.

  12. Of the following, which is a hole that could be the empty hole?

  (A) 1  (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6

  Questions 13-15

  Certain plants have the following beneficial or detri- mental effects on other plants when planted near them:

  Beans and carrots are mutually beneficial, and each is beneficial to peas.

  Dill stunts the growth of carrots and of tomatoes.

  Onions improve the pest resistance of carrots and of tomatoes but stunt the growth of beans and of peas.

  Kohlrabi and tomatoes stunt each other's growth.

  Basil improves the growth of tomatoes.

  Among the plants listed above, there are no addi- tional beneficial or detrimental effects of nearby planting.

  13. In a garden with the plants above, in order for tomatoes to receive the maximum beneficial effect from nearby planting of other plants, tomatoes should be grown near

  (A) peas and carrots but near neither dill nor beans

  (B) basil and onions but near neither kohlrabi nor dill

  (C) onions and kohlrabi but near neither peas nor basil

  (D) beans and kohlrabi but near neither carrots nor onions

  (E) peas and onions but near neither basil nor kohlrabi

  14. If adjacent rows of plants are near each other but rows of plants separated by at least one other row are not near each other, in which of the following sequences of rows of plants will there be a detrimental effect between some plants?

  (A) Peas, tomatoes, onions

  (B) Tomatoes, peas, dill

  (C) Tomatoes, peas, kohlrabi

  (D) Onions, carrots, peas

  (E) Onions, peas, kohlrabi

  15. If the plants in a group are planted near each other, in which of the following groups of plants will the FEWEST kinds of plants suffer detrimental effects?

  (A) Onions, beans, kohlrabi

  (B) Onions, beans, peas

  (C) Onions, kohlrabi, tomatoes

  (D) Dill, tomatoes, carrots

  (E) Dill, kohlrabi, tomatoes

  Questions 16-19

  Two display cases, designated case 1 and case 2, are to be used for a display of fossils. The only fossils available are three large ones-J, K, and L-and four small ones-M, N, O, and P. the display must meet the following conditions:

  At least six of the fossils must be included in the display.

  There must be at least one fossil displayed in each of the two cases.

  J and K cannot be displayed in a case together.

  J and M, if included in the display, must be in a case together; neither can be included in the display alone.

  L and N, if included in the display, must be in a case together; neither can be included in the display alone.

  16. Which of the following could be the group of fossils displayed in case 1?

  (A) J, L, M   (B) J, K, L, O

  (C) J, M, N, O  (D) J, M, O, P

  (E) K, L, M, N, O

  17. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable arrangement for displaying the fossils?

  Case 1   Case 2

  (A) J, L, M, N, P  K, O

  (B) J, M   K, L, N, O, P

  (C) J, M, O   K, L, N, P

  (D) J, M, P   K, L, N, O

  (E)J, O, P   K, L, M, N

  18. If J and M are the only fossils displayed in case 1, and K is one of the fossils displayed in case 2, case 2 must also contain

  (A) L and N and at least one other fossil

  (B) O and P and at least one other fossil

  (C) L, N, and O, but not P

  (D) L, N, and P, but not O

  (E) L, N, O, and P

  19. If K is the only large fossil displayed in case 1, which of the following must be true?

  (A) Exactly two fossils are displayed in case 1.

  (B) No more than five fossils are displayed in case 2.

  (C) Case 1 and case 2 each contain exactly two small fossils.

  (D) All four small fossils are displayed.

  (E) All three large fossils are displayed.

  Questions 20-22

  U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are chemical compounds. In any mixture of them in which a reaction is possible, some reaction will occur, and likewise among the products of each reaction, until a nonreactive mixture is produced. The following are the only possible reactions:

  One molecule of U instantaneously reacts with one molecule of V to produce one molecule of Y, one of Z, and one of V.

  One molecule of W instantaneously reacts with one molecule of X to produce one molecule of V.

  Two molecules of Y instantaneously react with one molecule of W to produce one molecule of Z and one of U.

  One molecule of X instantaneously reacts with one molecule of U to produce two molecules of W.

  Four molecules of Z instantaneously react with one molecule of X to produce one molecule of U and one of Y.

  A molecule of a compound cannot be divided into smaller units of that compound.

  20. If two molecules of Y, one of W, and one of V are mixed, which of the following accurately lists each individual molecule present in the resul- tant nonreactive mixture?

  (A) U, V, Z  (B) V, Y, Z (C) U, Y, Z, Z

  (D) V, Y, Z, Z (E) V, Y, Y, Z, Z

  21. If three molecules of W, one molecule of X, and three molecules of Y are mixed, how many molecules will be present in the resulting nonreactive mixture?

  (A) 4   (B) 5   (C) 6   (D) 7   (E) 8

  22. In any mixture in which one or more reactions occur, the number of molecules of which compound will always increase or remain constant?

  (A) U   (B) V   (C) W   (D) X   (E) Y

  23. A research study reports that a particular educa- tional program has improved the prospects for success in later schooling for those children aged three to five who were subjects of the study. It follows, then, that introducing similar programs for all children aged three to five will improve their chances for success in latter schooling.

  Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

  (A) The parents of preschool children in the United States are attracted to educational fads and do not have a clear idea of what sorts of early education programs might benefit their children.

  (B) The cognitive abilities of children are con- stantly changing between ages three and five.

  (C) The researchers unwittingly included a sub- stantial number of children who had been previously exposed to another educa- tional enrichment program.

  (D) Many parents erroneously presume that early formal instruction takes up time that children could better spend exploring their worlds independently.

  (E) It would require extraordinary public expense to establish such educational enrichment programs on a national basis.

  24. The school bus always stops at the railroad tracks. When the warning light is not flashing, it then proceeds directly across if the tracks are clear. However, when the warning light is not flashing and the tracks are not clear, the school bus waits until they are clear and then proceeds immediately across them.

  If the statements above are true and it is true that the school bus stops at the tracks and then does not proceed to cross them, which of the following must also be true?

  (A) The warning light is flashing and the tracks are clear.

  (B) The warning light is flashing and the tracks are not clear.

  (C) The warning light is not flashing and the tracks are not clear.

  (D) The warning light is flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.

  (E) The warning light is not flashing, or the tracks are not clear, or both.

  25. Konstantin Stanislavski's justly praised method for training actors arose from Stanislavski's own awkwardness and susceptibility to theatrical cliches as a young actor. The "method" must be understood in terms of Stanislavski's personal search for release from the temptations of stock gestures, well-tried vocal intonations, and standard emotional formulas. Despite the pretensions of certain of his disciples in the United States, the Russian director never intended to formulate a textbook of rigid solutions to acting problems.

  It can be inferred that the author of the preceding statements about Stanislavski's method holds which of the following opinions about acting?

  (A) Acting is essentially spontaneous emotional expression, with which systematic training usually interferes.

  (B) The Stanislavski method has lost some of its flexibility and exploratory qualities as it has been used by some followers of Stanislavski in the United States.

  (C) The Stanislavski method has misled those actors in the United States who have adopted it.

  (D) Virtually the only advice young actors need be given is that they must systematically suppress theatrical cliches in their performances.

  (E) The Stanislavski method is useful primarily for young actors who must overcome artificiality and immaturity in their performances.

相关热词:GRE 北美 试题

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