No. 5-3 SECTION 1
1. By divesting himself of all regalities, the former king----the consideration that customarily protects monarchs.
(A) merited (B) forfeited (C) debased
(D) concealed (E) extended
2. A perennial goal in zoology is to infer function from----, relating the----of an organism to its physical form and cellular organization.
(A) age.. ancestry
(B) classification.. appearance
(C) size.. movement (D) structure.. behavior
(E) location.. habitat
3. The sociologist responded to the charge that her new theory was----by pointing out that it did not in fact contradict accepted sociological principles.
(A) banal (B) heretical (C) unproven
(D) complex (E) superficial
4. Industrialists seized economic power only after industry had----agriculture as the preeminent form of production; previously such power had
(A) sabotaged.. threatened
(B) overtaken.. produced
(C) toppled.. culminated in
(D) joined.. relied on
(E) supplanted.. resided in
5. Rumors, embroidered with detail, live on for years, neither denied nor confirmed, until they become accepted as fact even among people not known for their----.
(A) insight (B) obstinacy (C) introspection
(D) tolerance (E) credulity
6. No longer----by the belief that the world around us was expressly designed for humanity, many people try to find intellectual----for that lost certainty in astrology and in mysticism.
(A) satisfied.. reasons
(B) sustained.. substitutes
(C) reassured.. justifications
(D) hampered.. equivalents
(E) restricted.. parallels
7. People should not be praised for their virtue if they lack the energy to be----; in such cases, goodness is merely the effect of----.
(A) depraved.. hesitation
(B) cruel.. effortlessness
(C) wicked.. indolence
(D) unjust.. boredom
(E) iniquitous.. impiety
8. SKELETON: ANIMAL::
(A) ivory: piano (B) peel: fruit (C) ore: mine
(D) mast: ship (E) framing: building
9. OUTSKIRTS: TOWN::
(A) rung: ladder (B) trunk: tree
(C) water: goblet (D) margin: page
(E) hangar: airplane
10. AMORPHOUSNESS: DEFINITION::
(A) lassitude: energy
(B) spontaneity: awareness
(C) angularity: intricacy
(D) rectitude: drabness
(E) precision: uniformity
11. COLLUSION: CONSPIRATORS::
(A) conclusion: messengers
(B) revision: correspondents
(C) identification: arbitrators
(D) attribution: interpreters
(E) cooperation: partners
12. DIVERT: SHUNT::
(A) file: collate (B) collide: dent
(C) guess: calibrate (D) retard: brake
(E) inspect: magnify
13. EQUIVOCATE: COMMITMENT::
(A) procrastinate: action
(B) implicate: exposition
(C) expostulate: confusion
(D) corroborate: falsification
(E) fabricate: explanation
14. ARMADA: VEHICLES::
(A) drill: recruits (B) planning: logistics
(C) infantry: cavalry (D) fusillade: projectiles
(E) supply: munitions
15. LACONIC: SPEECH::
(A) believable: excuse
(B) unyielding: attitude
(C) austere: design
(D) somber: procession
(E) gradual: transition
16. GROW: BURGEON::
(A) beat: palpitate (B) transport: enrapture
(C) flourish: thrive (D) rot: decay
(E) evolve: multiply
The belief that art originates in intuitive rather than rational faculties was worked out historically and phi- losophically in the somewhat wearisome volumes of Benedetto Croce, who is usually considered the orig- inator of a new aesthetic. Croce was, in fact, express- ing a very old idea. Long before the Romantics stressed intuition and self-expression, the frenzy of inspiration was regarded as fundamental to art, but philosophers had always assumed it must be controlled by law and by the intellectual power of putting things into harmonious order. This general philosophic con- cept of art was supported by technical necessities. It was necessary to master certain laws and to use intel- lect in order to build Gothic cathedrals, or set up the stained glass windows of Chartres. When this bracing element of craftsmanship ceased to dominate artists' outlook, new technical elements had to be adopted to maintain the intellectual element in art. Such were linear perspective and anatomy.
17. The passage suggests that which of the following would most likely have occurred if linear per- spective and anatomy had not come to influence artistic endeavor?
(A) The craftsmanship that shaped Gothic architecture would have continued to dominate artists' outlooks.
(B) Some other technical elements would have been adopted to discipline artistic inspi- ration.
(C) Intellectual control over artistic inspiration would not have influenced painting as it did architecture.
(D) The role of intuitive inspiration would not have remained fundamental to theories of artistic creation.
(E) The assumptions of aesthetic philosophers before Croce would have been invalidated.
18. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Does Romantic art exhibit the triumph of intuition over intellect?
(B) Did an emphasis on linear perspective and anatomy dominate Romantic art?
(C) Are the intellectual and intuitive faculties harmoniously balanced in post-Romantic art?
(D) Are the effects of the rational control of artistic inspiration evident in the great works of pre-Romantic eras?
(E) Was the artistic craftsmanship displayed in Gothic cathedrals also an element in paintings of this period?
19. The passage implies that which of the following was a traditional assumption of aesthetic philosophers?
(A) Intellectual elements in art exert a necessary control over artistic inspiration.
(B) Architecture has never again reached the artistic greatness of the Gothic cathedrals.
(C) Aesthetic philosophy is determined by the technical necessities of art.
(D) Artistic craftsmanship is more important in architectural art than in pictorial art.
(E) Paintings lacked the intellectual element before the invention of linear perspective and anatomy
20. The author mentions "linear perspective and anatomy" in the last sentence in order to do which of the following ?
(A) Expand his argument to include painting as well as architecture
(B) Indicate his disagreement with Croce's theory of the origins of art
(C) Support his point that rational order of some kind has often seemed to discipline artistic inspiration
(D) Explain the rational elements in Gothic painting that corresponded to craftsmanship in Gothic architecture
(E) Show the increasing sophistication of artists after the Gothic period
(The passage below is drawn from an article published in 1962.)
Computer programmers often remark that com- puting machines, with a perfect lack of discrimina- tion, will do any foolish thing they are told to do. The reason for this lies, of course, in the narrow fixation of the computing machine's "intelligence" on the details of its own perceptions-its inability to be guided by any large context. In a psychological description of the computer intelligence, three related adjectives come to mind: single-minded, literal- minded, and simpleminded. Recognizing this, we should at the same time recognize that this single- mindedness, literal-mindedness, and simplemindedness also characterizes theoretical mathematics, though to a lesser extent.
Since science tries to deal with reality, even the most precise sciences normally work with more or less imperfectly understood approximations toward which scientists must maintain an appropriate skepticism. Thus, for instance, it may come as a shock to mathe- maticians to learn that the Schrodinger equation for the hydrogen atom is not a literally correct description of this atom, but only an approximation to a some- what more correct equation taking account of spin, magnetic dipole, and relativistic effects; and that this corrected equation is itself only an imperfect approximation to an infinite set of quantum field- theoretical equations. Physicists, looking at the original Schrodinger equation, learn to sense in it the presence of many invisible terms in addition to the differential terms visible, and this sense inspires an entirely appropriate disregard for the purely technical features of the equation. This very healthy skepticism is foreign to the mathematical approach.
Mathematics must deal with well-defined situa- tions. Thus, mathematicians depend on an intellectual effort outside of mathematics for the crucial specifica- tion of the approximation that mathematics is to take literally. Give mathematicians a situation that is the least bit ill-defined, and they will make it well-defined, perhaps appropriately, but perhaps inappropriately. In some cases, the mathematicians' literal-mindedness may have unfortunate consequences. The mathema- ticians turn the scientists' theoretical assumptions, that is, their convenient points of analytical emphasis, into axioms, and then take these axioms literally. This brings the danger that they may also persuade the scientists to take these axioms literally. The question, central to the scientific investigation but intensely disturbing in the mathematical context-what happens if the axioms are relaxed?-is thereby ignored.
The physicist rightly dreads precise argument, since an argument that is convincing only if it is precise loses all its force if the assumptions on which it is based are slightly changed, whereas an argument that is convincing though imprecise may well be stable under small perturbations of its underlying assumptions.
21. The author discusses computing machines in the first paragraph primarily in order to do which of the following?
(A) Indicate the dangers inherent in relying to a great extent on machines
(B) Illustrate his views about the approach of mathematicians to problem solving
(C) Compare the work of mathematicians with that of computer programmers
(D) Provide one definition of intelligence
(E) Emphasize the importance of computers in modern technological society
22. According to the passage, scientists are skeptical toward their equations because scientists
(A) work to explain real, rather than theoretical or simplified, situations
(B) know that well-defined problems are often the most difficult to solve
(C) are unable to express their data in terms of multiple variables
(D) are unwilling to relax the axioms they have developed
(E) are unable to accept mathematical explanations of natural phenomena
23. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists make which of the following assumptions about scientific arguments?
(A) The literal truth of the arguments can be made clear only in a mathematical context.
(B) The arguments necessarily ignore the central question of scientific investigation.
(C) The arguments probably will be convincing only to other scientists.
(D) The conclusions of the arguments do not necessarily follow from their premises.
(E) The premises on which the arguments are based may change.
24. According to the passage, mathematicians present a danger to scientists for which of the following reasons?
(A) Mathematicians may provide theories that are incompatible with those already developed by scientists.
(B) Mathematicians may define situation in a way that is incomprehensible to scientists.
(C) Mathematicians may convince scientists that theoretical assumptions are facts.
(D) Scientists may come to believe that axiomatic statements are untrue.
(E) Scientists may begin to provide arguments that are convincing but imprecise.
25. The author suggests that the approach of physi- cists to solving scientific problems is which of the following?
(A) Practical for scientific purposes
(B) Detrimental to scientific progress
(C) Unimportant in most situations
(D) Expedient, but of little long-term value
(E) Effective, but rarely recognized as such
26. The author suggests that a mathematician asked to solve a problem in an ill-defined situation would first attempt to do which of the following?
(A) Identify an analogous situation
(B) Simplify and define the situation
(C) Vary the underlying assumptions of a description of the situation
(D) Determine what use would be made of the solution provided
(E) Evaluate the theoretical assumptions that might explain the situation
27. The author implies that scientists develop a healthy skepticism because they are aware that
(A) mathematicians are better able to solve problems than are scientists
(B) changes in axiomatic propositions will inevitably undermine scientific arguments
(C) well-defined situations are necessary for the design of reliable experiments
(D) mathematical solutions can rarely be applied to real problems
(E) some factors in most situations must remain unknown
(A) boil off (B) fill up (C) melt down
(D) neutralize (E) spin
(A) prolific (B) unchanging
(C) conventional (D) noticeable
(A) catalyst (B) acid (C) solution
(D) reaction (E) compound
(A) expiate (B) deviate (C) dilate
(D) accelerate (E) vindicate
(A) unlikely (B) imaginative (C) indecisive
(D) characteristic (E) challenging
(A) wealth (B) vanity (C) boldness
(D) endurance (E) vivacity
(A) display openly (B) request directly
(C) initiate willingly (D) advocate strongly
(E) contribute lavishly
(A) distraught (B) irritating (C) ruthless
(D) headstrong (E) lazy
(A) sensuously pleasant
(B) prominently visible
(C) intrinsically reasonable
(D) fully formed (E) widely known
(A) thoroughness (B)generosity
(C) gratitude (D) tact (E) loyalty
(A) create a void (B) rectify an error
(C) sanction (D) surrender (E) lend
No. 5-3 SECTION 2
1. Animals that have tasted unpalatable plants tend to----them afterward on the basis of their most conspicuous features, such as their flowers.
(A) recognize (B) hoard (C) trample
(D) retrieve (E) approach
2. As for the alleged value of expert opinion, one need only----government records to see---- evidence of the failure of such opinions in many fields.
(A) inspect.. questionable
(B) retain.. circumstantial
(C) distribute.. possible
(D) consult.. strong
(E) evaluate.. problematic
3. In scientific inquiry it becomes a matter of duty to expose a ----hypothesis to every possible kind of----.
(A) tentative.. examination
(B) debatable.. approximation
(C) well-established.. rationalization
(D) logical.. elaboration
(E) suspect.. correlation
4. Charlotte Salomon's biography is a reminder that the currents of private life, however diverted, dislodged, or twisted by ----public events, retain their hold on the----recording them.
(A) transitory.. culture (B) dramatic.. majority
(C) overpowering.. individual
(D) conventional.. audience
(E) relentless.. institution
5. Philosophical problems arise when people ask questions that, though very----, have certain characteristics in common.
(A) relevant (B) elementary
(C) abstract (D) diverse
6. Although Johnson----great enthusiasm for his employees' project, in reality his interest in the project was so----as to be almost non- existent.
(A) generated.. redundant
(B) displayed.. preemptive
(C) expected.. indiscriminate
(D) feigned.. perfunctory
(E) demanded.. dispassionate
7. Not all the indicators necessary to convey the effect of depth in a picture work simultaneously, the picture's illusion of----three-dimensional appearance must therefore result from the viewer's integration of various indicators perceived----.
(A) imitative.. coincidentally
(B) uniform.. successively
(C) temporary.. comprehensively
(D) expressive.. sympathetically
(E) schematic.. passively
8. GADGETS: TOOLS::
(A) blankets: linen (B) leaflets: posters
(C) trinkets: jewelry (D) sockets: bulbs
(E) ringlets: hair
9. LISTEN: RECORDING::
(A) carve: statue (B) reproduce: plan
(C) review: book (D) frame: painting
(E) view: photograph
10. CENSORSHIP: INFORMATION::
(A) frugality: constraint
(B) sampling: measurement
(C) sanitation: disease
(D) cultivation: erosion
(E) philanthropy: generosity
11. DELUGE: DROPLET::
(A) beach: wave (B) desert: oasis
(C) blizzard: icicle (D) landslide: pebble
(E) cloudburst: puddle
12. SPEAK: RETICENT::
(A) spend: parsimonious
(B) excel: audacious (C) commend: irate
(D) work: servile (E) invent: diffident
13. PATRIOTIC: CHAUVINISTIC::
(A) impudent: intolerant
(B) furtive: surreptitious
(C) incisive: trenchant
(D) receptive: gullible
(E) verbose: prolix
14. BOUQUET: FLOWERS::
(A) forest: trees (B) husk: corn (C) mist: rain
(D) woodpile: logs (E) drift: snow
15. ENDEMIC: REGION::
(A) homogeneous: population
(B) inborn: individual (C) hybrid: species
(D) sporadic: time (E) aberrant: norm
16. PECCADILLO: SIN::
(A) provocation: instigation
(B) anxiety: fear (C) perjury: corruption
(D) penury: poverty
(E) admonishment: castigation
In eighteenth-century France and England, re- formers rallied around egalitarian ideals, but few reformers advocated higher education for women. Although the public decried women's lack of educa- tion, it did not encourage learning for its own sake for women. In spite of the general prejudice against learned women, there was one place where women could exhibit their erudition: the literary salon. Many writers have defined the woman's role in the salon as that of an intelligent hostess, but the salon had more than a social function for women. It was an informal university, too, where women exchanged ideas with educated persons, read their own works and heard those of others, and received and gave criticism. In the 1750's, when salons were firmly established in France, some English women, who called themselves "Bluestocking," followed the example of the salonnieres (French salon hostesses) and formed their own salons. Most Bluestockings did not wish to mirror the salonnieres; they simply desired to adapt a proven formula to their own purpose-the elevation of women's status through moral and intellectual training. Differences in social orientation and back- ground can account perhaps for differences in the nature of French and English salons. The French salon incorporated aristocratic attitudes that exalted courtly pleasure and emphasized artistic accomplish- ments. The English Bluestockings, originating from a more modest background, emphasized learning and work over pleasure. Accustomed to the regimented life of court circles, salonnieres tended toward formality in their salons. The English women, though somewhat puritanical, were more casual in their approach. At first, the Bluestockings did imitate the salonnieres by including men in their circles. However, as they gained cohesion, the Bluestockings came to regard themselves as a women's group and to possess a sense of female solidarity lacking in the salonnieres, who remained isolated from one another by the primacy each held in her own salon. In an atmosphere of mutual support, the Bluestockings went beyond the salon experience. They traveled, studied, worked, wrote for publication, and by their activities chal- lenged the stereotype of the passive woman. Although the salonnieres were aware of sexual inequality, the narrow boundaries of their world kept their intel- lectual pursuits within conventional limits. Many salonnieres, in fact, camouflaged their nontraditional activities behind the role of hostess and deferred to men in public.
Though the Bluestockings were trailblazers when compared with the salonnieres, they were not femi- nists. They were too traditional, too hemmed in by their generation to demand social and political rights. Nonetheless, in their desire for education, their will- ingness to go beyond the confines of the salon in pursuing their interests, and their championing of unity among women, the Bluestockings began the process of questioning women's role in society.
17. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The establishment of literary salons was a response to reformers' demands for social rights for women.
(B) Literary salons were originally intended to be a meeting ground for intellectuals of both sexes, but eventually became social gatherings with little educational value.
(C) In England, as in France, the general pre- judice against higher education for women limited women's function in literary salons to a primarily social one.
(D) The literary salons provided a sounding board for French and English women who called for access to all the educa- tional institutions in their societies on an equal basis with men.
(E) For women, who did not have access to higher education as men did, literary salons provided an alternate route to learning and a challenge to some of society's basic assumptions about women.
18. According to the passage, a significant distinc- tion between the salonnieres and Bluestockings was in the way each group regarded which of the following?
(A) The value of acquiring knowledge
(B) The role of pleasure in the activities of the literary salon
(C) The desirability of a complete break with societal traditions
(D) The inclusion of women of different back- grounds in the salons
(E) The attainment of full social and political equality with men
19. The author refers to differences in social back- ground between salonnieres and Bluestockings in order to do which of the following?
(A) Criticize the view that their choices of activities were significantly influenced by male salon members
(B) Discuss the reasons why literary salons in France were established before those in England
(C) Question the importance of the Bluestockings in shaping public attitudes toward educated women
(D) Refute the argument that the French salons had little influence over the direction the English salons took
(E) Explain the differences in atmosphere and style in their salons
20. Which of the following statements is most compatible with the principles of the salonnieres as described in the passage?
(A) Women should aspire to be not only educated but independent as well.
(B) The duty of the educated women is to provide an active political model for less educated women.
(C) Devotion to pleasure and art is justified in itself.
(D) Substance, rather than form, is the most important consideration in holding a literary salon.
(E) Men should be excluded from groups of women's rights supporters.
21. The passage suggests that the Bluestockings might have had a more significant impact on society if it had not been for which of the following?
(A) Competitiveness among their salons
(B) Their emphasis on individualism
(C) The limited scope of their activities
(D) Their acceptance of the French salon as a model for their own salons
(E) Their unwillingness to defy aggressively the conventions of their age
22. Which of the following could best be considered a twentieth-century counterpart of an eighteenth century literary salon as it is described in the passage?
(A) A social sorority
(B) A community center
(C) A lecture course on art
(D) A humanities study group
(E) An association of moral reformers
23. To an assertion that Bluestockings were fem- inists, the author would most probably respond with which of the following?
(A) Admitted uncertainty
(B) Qualified disagreement
(C) Unquestioning approval
(D) Complete indifference
(E) Strong disparagement
24. Which of the following titles best describes the content of the passage?
(A) Eighteenth-Century Egalitarianism
(B) Feminists of the Eighteenth Century
(C) Eighteenth-Century Precursors of Feminism
(D) Intellectual Life in the Eighteenth Century
(E) Female Education Reform in the Eighteenth Century
When the same parameters and quantitative theory are used to analyze both termite colonies and troops of rhesus macaques, we will have a unified science of sociobiology. Can this ever really happen? As my own studies have advanced, I have been increasingly im- pressed with the functional similarities between insect and vertebrate societies and less so with the structural differences that seem, at first glance, to constitute such an immense gulf between them. Consider for a moment termites and macaques. Both form cooperative groups that occupy territories. In both kinds of society there is a well-marked division of labor. Members of both groups communicate to each other hunger, alarm, hostility, caste status or rank, and reproductive status. From the specialist's point of view, this comparison may at first seem facile-or worse. But it is out of such deliberate oversimplification that the beginnings of a general theory are made.
25. Which of the following best summarizes the author's main point?
(A) Oversimplified comparisons of animal societies could diminish the likelihood of developing a unified science of sociobiology.
(B) Understanding the ways in which animals as different as termites and rhesus macaques resemble each other requires train in both biology and sociology.
(C) Most animals organize themselves into societies that exhibit patterns of group behavior similar to those of human societies.
(D) Animals as different as termites and rhesus macaques follow certain similar and predictable patterns of behavior.
(E) A study of the similarities between insect and vertebrate societies could provide the basis for a unified science of sociobiology.
26. The author's attitude toward the possibility of a unified theory in sociobiology is best described as which of the following?
(A) Guarded optimism
(B) Unqualified enthusiasm
(C) Objective indifference
(D) Resignation (E) Dissatisfaction
27. In discussing insect and vertebrate societies, the author suggests which of the following?
(A) A distinguishing characteristic of most insect and vertebrate societies is a well- marked division of labor.
(B) The caste structure of insect societies is similar to that of vertebrate societies.
(C) Most insect and vertebrate societies form cooperative groups in order to occupy territory.
(D) The means of communication among members of insect societies is similar to that among members of vertebrate societies.
(E) There are significant structural differences between insect and vertebrate societies.
(A) participate (B) determine (C) persist
(D) conclude (E) prevent
(A) seek actively (B) perform occasionally
(C) understand intuitively
(D) answer correctly
(E) influence easily
(A) uncleanness (B) unfairness
(C) unskillfulness (D) unreadiness
(A) regulation (B) emulation (C) extirpation
(D) infiltration (E) revelation
(A) delicate (B) humble (C) certain
(D) constructive (E) contemptible
(A) perpetual activity (B) rapid growth
(C) motionless balance (D) accurate focus
(E) minimal response
(A) stigma (B) dishonesty (C) disbelief
(D) grievance (E) dislike
(A) unitary (B) disjointed (C) nonphysical
(D) by hand (E) with effort
(A) specify (B) signify (C) scrutinize
(D) discriminate between (E) coincide with
(A) brisk (B) bold (C) untidy
(D) ungenerous (E) unfriendly
(A) sustain (B) strive (C) favor
(D) cut (E) wax
No.5-3 SECTION 5
All padlocks manufactured by the Guaranteed Com- bination Lock Company have a combination that consists of four elements-a one-digit number, a two-digit number, and two letters of the alphabet.
Each combination conforms to the following rules:
(1) The one-digit number is the first element in the combination.
(2) The two letters of the alphabet are not adjacent elements in the combination.
(3) The two-digit number consists of two different numerals.
(4) The two-digit number has no numerals in common with the one-digit number.
1. Which of the following is a sequence of elements that conforms to the rules?
(A) 6-73-D-M (B) 2-X-37-G
(C) 39-H-Y-6 (D) H-24-K-4
2. Which of the following must always be true of a combination?
(A) The second element is a two-digit number.
(B) The third element is a letter of the alphabet.
(C) The third element is a one-digit number.
(D) The fourth element is a two-digit number.
(E) The fourth element is a letter of the alphabet.
3. Which of the following CANNOT be the first element of a combination that has K-53-J as its second, third, and fourth elements?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 (E) 9
4. The sequence of elements 9-K-M-29 violates which of the rules given?
(A) Rule 2 only (B) Rule 3 only
(C) Rule 2 and rule 4 only
(D) Rule 3 and rule 4 only
(E) Rule 2, rule 3, and rule 4
5. If your radio was made after 1972, it has a stereo feature.
The statement above can be deduced logically from which of the following statements?
(A) Only if a radio was made after 1972 could it have a stereo feature.
(B) All radios made after 1972 have a stereo feature.
(C) Some radios made before 1972 had a stereo feature.
(D) Some stereo features are found in radios made after 1972.
(E) Stereo features for radios were fully developed only after 1972.
6. Rule 1 of Game X provides that anyone who refuses to become a player in Game X shall at the moment of refusal be assessed a ten-point penalty in the game.
Which of the following claims is implicit in Rule 1?
(A) All those who agree to play Game X will achieve scores higher than the scores of those who were assessed a penalty under Rule 1.
(B) A person can avoid a ten-point penalty by initially agreeing to become a player and then withdrawing after the game is under way.
(C) The rules of Game X supply a procedure for determining when the game is over.
(D) A person who refuses to play Game X cannot be declared a loser in the game.
(E) A person can at the same time decline to play Game X and yet be a part of the game.
7. A common misconception is that university hospitals are better than community or private hospitals. In fact, university hospitals have a lower survival rate for patients than do other hospitals. From this it seems clear that the quality of care at university hospitals is lower than that at other hospitals.
Which of the following, if true, most forcefully undermines the arguments of the passage above?
(A) Many doctors divide their working hours between a university and a community or private hospital.
(B) Doctors at university hospitals often earn less than doctors at private hospitals.
(C) University and community hospitals often cannot afford the elaborate facilities of private hospitals.
(D) The emphasis at many university hospitals is on pure research rather than on the treatment and care of patients.
(E) The patients who seek help at university hospitals are usually more seriously ill than those at private or community hospitals.
A pet store owner is setting up several fish tanks, each to contain exactly six fish so chosen from species F, G, H, I, J, K, and L that none of the fish in any given tank will fight. Fish of any of the species above can be placed in a tank together except for the following restrictions:
Fish of species F will fight with fish of species H, J, and K.
Fish of species I will fight with fish of Species G and K.
If three or more fish of species I are in one tank, they will fight with each other.
Fish of species J will fight with fish of species L.
If a fish of species G is to be in a tank, at least one fish of species K must also be in the tank.
8. If a tank is to contain fish of exactly three different species, these species could be
(A) F, G, and I (B) F, I, and K
(C) G, H, and I (D) H, I, and J
(E) I, J, and L
9. If there are to be exactly two species represented in a tank, and three fish of species J are to be in the tank, the other three fish in that tank could be from which of the following species?
(A) F (B) G (C) H (D) I (E) L
10. If a tank is to contain fish of exactly four different species, it CANNOT contain fish of species
(A) F (B) G (C) H (D) J (E) L
11. Fish of which of the following species could be put into a tank with fish of species G?
(A) F and I (B) F and J (C) H and I
(D) H and K (E) I and K
Two circular dials of exactly the same size are mounted on a wall side by side in such a way that their perimeters touch at one point.
Dial 1, which is on the left, spins clockwise around its center, and dial 2, which is on the right, spins counterclockwise around its center. (Assume that there is no friction at the point of contact between the dials.)
Each dial has marked on its perimeter three points that are at equal distances around the perimeter from each other.
Going clockwise on each dial the points marked on dial 1 are N, O, and P, and the points marked on dial 2 are X, Y, and Z.
12. Which of the following lists the points on a dial in an order in which they could pass consec- utively through the point of contact between the dials?
(A) O, N, P (B) O, P, O (C) X, Z, Y
(D) Y, X, Z (E) Z, X, Z
13. If points O and Z are just meeting at the point of contact between the dials, and if dial 1 spins at the same speed as dial 2, what is the smallest number of revolutions of each dial that will bring O and Z together again?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
14. If points N and Y are just meeting at the point of contact between the dials, and if dial 1 spins at the same speed as dial 2, which of the following pairs of points will also meet in the course of the next full revolution of the dials?
(A) N and Z (B) O and X (C) O and Z
(D) P and X (E) P and Y
15. Which of the following is a possible sequence of pairs of points meeting consecutively at the point of contact between the dials if dial 1 spins at the same speed as dial 2?
(A) N and O followed by X and Z
(B) N and X followed by O and Z
(C) O and X followed by N and X
(D) O and Y followed by N and Z
(E) P and Z followed by P and X
16. If points P and X are just meeting at the point of contact between the dials, and if dial 2 spins at exactly double the speed of dial 1, which of the following pairs of points will be the next pair to meet at the point of contact?
(A) N and Y (B) N and Z (C) O and X
(D) O and Z (E) P and Y
17. If points P and Y are just meeting at the point of contact between the dials, and if dial 1 spins at exactly three times the speed of dial 2, which of the following pairs of points will be the next pair to meet at the point of contact? (A) N and X (B) N and Z (C) O and Y (D) P and X (E) P and Z
Ten different fabrics are being displayed on racks along one wall of a store. The racks are next to each other in a straight line and are numbered consecu- tively from one to ten. On each rack is a single bolt of a different fabric. One fabric is green, two fabrics are different shades of brown, three fabrics are different shades of purple, and the remaining four fabrics are different shades of red.
Purple fabrics are on racks one and ten.
The two brown fabrics are on racks next to each other.
No red fabric is on a rack next to a brown fabric.
No purple fabric is on a rack next to the green fabric.
18. If a purple fabric is on rack two and red fabrics are on racks three and four, the green fabric must be on which of the following racks?
(A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight
19. If the four red fabrics are on four consecutive racks, the green fabric and one of the brown fabrics could be on which of the following racks, respectively?
(A) Two and three (B) Three and four
(C) Four and five (D) Five and six
(E) Six and seven
20. Which of the following are colors of fabrics that CANNOT be on racks two, three, and four, respectively?
(A) Purple, red, green
(B) Purple, brown, brown
(C) Brown, brown, purple
(D) Red, red, green (E) Red, red, red
21. If a purple fabric is on rack three and a brown fabric is on rack four, the green fabric must be on which of the following racks?
(A) Two (B) Five (C) Six (D) Seven
22. If the green fabric is on rack five and a brown fabric is on rack four, which of the following must be true?
(A) A red fabric is on rack two.
(B) A red fabric is on rack nine.
(C) A purple fabric is on rack six.
(D) A purple fabric is on rack seven.
(E) A purple fabric is on rack eight.
23. Literary historians today have rejected conven- tional analyses of the development of English Renaissance drama. They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter. Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the passage above?
(A) England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period.
(B) Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum.
(C) Historians' views of the antecedents of English Renaissance drama have changed considerably.
(D) Current scholarship applies an evolutionary model to English Renaissance drama.
(E) Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matter, its source of form and method is classical Greek drama.
24. In 1975, 35 percent of state W's work force was employed in manufacturing jobs. That percent- age dropped in each following year until in 1982 it reached 25 percent.
If the statements above are true, all of the fol- lowing statements about changes in W's work force between 1975 and 1982 could also be true
(A) The number of people in the work force increased, while the number of people employed in manufacturing jobs decreased.
(B) The number of people in the work force decreased, while the number of people employed in manufacturing jobs increased.
(C) Both the number of people in the work force and the number of people employed in manufacturing jobs increased.
(D) Both the number of people in the work force and the number of people employed in manufacturing jobs decreased.
(E) The number of people in the work force remained constant, while the number of people employed in manufacturing jobs decreased.
25. The excessive number of safety regulations that the federal government has placed on industry poses more serious hardships for big businesses than for small ones. Since large companies do everything on a more massive scale, they must alter more complex operations and spend much more money to meet governmental requirements.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(A) Small companies are less likely than large companies to have the capital reserves for improvements.
(B) The operations of small companies fre- quently rely on the same technologies as the operations of large companies.
(C) Safety regulation codes are uniform, established without reference to size of company.
(D) Large companies typically have more of their profits invested in other businesses than do small companies.
(E) Large companies are in general more likely than small companies to diversify their markets and products.
No. 5-3 SECTION 6
Seats on a small plane are being assigned to six passengers-N, P, Q, R, S, and T. The eight seats on the plane are in four rows, numbered 1 through 4, and each row has two seats. Seat assignments are made according to the following conditions:
N must sit alone in a row.
P must sit in the same row as R.
Q cannot sit in the same row as S.
The rows with only one passenger must be row 1 and row 3.
1. Which of the following passengers could be assigned to sit in the same row as Q?
(A) N (B) P (C) R (D) S (E) T
2. If P and R are in row 2, which of the following must be true?
(A) N is in row 1. (B) Q is in row 1.
(C) Q is in row 4. (D) S is in row 3.
(E) T is in row 4.
3. Which of the following is the total number of passengers eligible to be the passenger assigned to sit in the same row as T?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
4. If Q and T are assigned to sit together in a row, which of the following passengers could be assigned to sit in row 3?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S (E) T
5. Public education suffers from what can be diag- nosed as the sickness of an overgoverned society. This sickness denies many parents control over the kind of education their children receive. The power once held by parents has gravitated to professional educators. The sickness has been aggravated by increasing centralization and bureaucratization of schools.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the claim that there is continuing erosion of parents' control over their children's education?
(A) As a result of community pressure, growing numbers of school administrators follow recommendations made by parents.
(B) The number of professional educators has risen sharply over the last decade even though the number of students has declined.
(C) Parents' organizations that lobby for changes in school curriculums are gen- erally ineffectual.
(D) More members of school boards are ap- pointed by school administrators than are elected by the public.
(E) The use of state-wide curriculum programs increased in the United States during the past two decades.
6. From a certain farming region, trucks can carry vegetables to market in New Mexico in two days for a total cost of $300. A train will carry the vegetables there in four days for $200. If reducing time in transit is more important to the owner of the vegetables than is reducing the shipping bill, he or she will send the vegetables by truck.
Which of the following is an assumption made in the passage above?
(A) Vegetables can be sold more profitably when shipped by train than by truck.
(B) Other than speed and cost, there are no significant differences between truck and train transportation from the farming region to New Mexico.
(C) The time required to ship vegetables by train from the farming region to New Mexico could be reduced to two days if the price for this service were raised.
(D) Most owners of vegetables in the region are more concerned with shipping costs than with the time involved in shipping vegetables to market.
(E) Transportation of vegetables by truck is worth at least $200 per day to owners of the vegetables in the farming region.
7. The expression "the doctrine of unshakable foundations" was once used by a critic in an effort to illuminate the dogmatic nature of cer- tain economic and political philosophies whose adherents, when confronted with the failure of a policy designed to put their philosophy into practice, can conceive of only one reaction: to design another, different policy for putting it into practice.
It can be inferred from the passage above that the critic would approve if the adherents
(A) had the courage to try a failed policy again without any changes
(B) had refrained from trying to put any of their philosophies into practice
(C) allowed failure of a policy to lead them to question the underpinnings of their philosophies
(D) concluded from the failure of a policy of theirs that the policy must not have reflected their philosophy adequately
(E) carefully analyzed those traits of a failed policy that appear promising despite the overall failure
The members of the Public Service Commission and the members of the Rent Control Commission are to be selected from exactly six qualified candidates. The six candidates are U, V, W, X, Y, and Z. The following rules apply:
Each commission must have exactly three members.
The two commissions must have at least one member in common.
U cannot be on a commission with X.
If X is selected for a commission, Y must also be selected for that commission.
8. If the members of the Public Service Commis- sion are selected first, which of the following could be those selected?
(A) U, V, and X (B) U, X, and Z
(C) V, W, and X (D) V, X, and Y
(E) W, X, and Z
9. If the two commissions have parallel terms of office, which of the following could be selected as the members of the Public Service Commis- sion and as the members of the Rent Control Commission, respectively, for one such term of office?
(A) U, V, and W; X, Y, and Z
(B) U, W, and Y; V, X, and Z
(C) U, X, and Y; U, X, and Z
(D) V, W, and Y; V, W, and X
(E) W, X, and Y; X, Y, and Z
10. If the members of the Public Service Commis- sion are V, W, and Z, and if the Rent Control Commission is to have as many members in common with the Public Service Commission as the rules allow, the Rent Control Commission must consist of
(A) U, V, and W (B) V, W, and Z
(C) V, X, and Z (D) W, Y, and Z
(E) X, Y, and Z
11. If U, V, and W make up the Public Service Commission, and W, Y, and Z make up the Rent Control Commission, which of these commission members could yield his or her place on a commission to X without neces- sitating any other membership changes?
(A) U (B) V (C) W (D) Y (E) Z
12. If U and X are each selected for a commission, and only Z is selected for both commissions, which of the following must be true?
(A) V is selected for the same commission as W.
(B) W is selected for the same commission as Y.
(C) W is selected for the same commission as X.
(D) U is selected for a different commission than Y.
(E) X is selected for a different commission than Y.
13. If X and Z are both selected for the Public Service Commission, and if U is selected for the Rent Control Commission, each of the following pairs of people could be the other two members of the Rent Control Commission
(A) V and W (B) V and Z (C) W and Y
(D) W and Z (E) Y and Z
A variety show producer is auditioning five per- formers in five consecutive auditions. Each performer auditions alone, and only once. The five performers are: two singers (a tenor and a soprano), a dancer, a magician, and a comedian. The auditions must be scheduled according to the following conditions:
The two singers cannot audition one after the other.
The magician must audition immediately before a singer.
The comedian must audition immediately before or immediately after the dancer.
14. If the comedian auditions first, which of the fol- lowing must be true?
(A) The soprano auditions third.
(B) The magician auditions fourth.
(C) The tenor auditions fifth.
(D) The soprano auditions sometime earlier than the dancer.
(E) The dancer auditions immediately before the tenor.
15. If the tenor auditions first, and the soprano auditions fifth, which of the following must be true?
(A) The comedian auditions sometime after the magician.
(B) The comedian auditions immediately after the dancer.
(C) The magician auditions sometime after the dancer.
(D) The magician auditions sometime before the comedian.
(E) The dancer auditions immediately before the magician.
16. If the comedian, the soprano, and the magician audition one after the other, in that order, which of the following must be true?
(A) The comedian is the first of the five to audition.
(B) The soprano is the second of the five to audition.
(C) The magician is the third of the five to audition.
(D) The dancer is the fourth of the five to audition.
(E) The tenor is the fifth of the five to audition.
17. If the magician auditions sometime earlier than the dancer, a singer CANNOT audition in which of the following positions?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third
(D) Fourth (E) Fifth
On an island there are exactly seven towns: T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z. All existing and projected roads on the island are two-way and run perfectly straight be- tween one town and the next. All distances by road are distances from the main square of one town to the main square of another town. U is the same distance by road from T, V, and W as Y is from X and Z. The following are all of the currently existing roads and connections by road on the island:
Road 1 goes from T to V via U.
Road 2 goes from U directly to W.
The Triangle Road goes from X to Y, from Y on to Z, and from Z back to X.
Any main square reached by two roads is an interchange between them, and there are no other interchanges between roads.
18. Which of the following is a town from which exactly two other towns can be reached by road?
(A) T (B) U (C) V (D) W (E) X
19. It is possible that the distance by road from X to Y is unequal to the distance by road from
(A) T to U (B) U to V (C) U to W
(D) X to Z (E) Y to Z
20. Which of the following is a pair of towns connected by two routes by road that have no stretch of road in common?
(A) T and U (B) U and V (C) V and W
(D) W and X (E) X and Y
21. If a projected road from T to Y were built, then the shortest distance by road from W to X would be the same as the shortest distance by road from Z to
(A) T (B) U (C) V (D) X (E) Y
22. If two projected roads were built, one from T directly to Y and one from V directly to Z, then each of the following would be a complete list of the towns lying along one of the routes that a traveler going by road from U to X could select EXCEPT
(A) T, Y (B) T, Z (C) V, Z (D) T, Y, Z
(E) V, Z, Y
23. If an investment has produced no profit, tax relief predicated on having made the investment is no help; any corporate manager who fears that a new asset will not make money is scarcely comforted by promises of reductions in taxes the corporation will not owe.
Which of the following is the most reliable inference to draw from the passage above?
(A) An effective way to discourage unprofitable corporate investment is to predicate tax relief on the making of profitable investments.
(B) Corporate managers are likely to ignore tax considerations in deciding to invest in assets they believe will be profitable.
(C) The promise of tax benefits for making new investments will not in and of itself stim- ulate new investment.
(D) The less importance a corporate manager attaches to tax considerations, the more likely it is that the manager will accu- rately predict the profitability of an investment.
(E) The critical factor in a corporate investment decision is likely to be a corporate manager's emotional response to perceived business conditions.
24. The results of a recent poll in the United States indicate that the public, by 80 percent to 17 per- cent, opposes relaxation of existing regulation of air pollution. Furthermore, not a single major segment of the public wants environmental laws made less strict. The results of this poll reveal that legislators, by voting for renewal of the Clean Air Act, will be responsive to the will of the public without alienating any significant special-interest groups.
Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful in evaluating the logic of the argument presented above?
(A) The groups in the population that were defined as major segments of the public and the groups defined as special-interest groups
(B) The length of time that current federal environmental laws have been in effect and the length of time that states have regulated air pollution
(C) The probable economic effect of renewal of the Clean Air Act on those opposed to and those in favor of relaxing environ- mental laws
(D) The people whom the author hopes to influence by citing the results of the poll
(E) The percentage of those surveyed who chose not to respond to the questions asked of them
25. After a rebellion in a certain country was put down, the country's parliament debated how to deal with the defeated rebels. One side proposed that all the rebels be imprisoned in order to deter those who might be strongly tempted to rebel in the future. The other side argued against imprisonment because it would only discourage future insurrectionists from surrendering.
Both positions logically depend on the assump- tion that
(A) imprisonment is a harsh penalty
(B) a rebel will prefer a sentence of imprisonment to death
(C) there will be no future rebellion in the country
(D) it is unlikely that future rebels will surrender
(E) resistance to authority is weakened by harsh threats