SECTION 1： LISTENING TEST
Part A： Spot Dictation
Direction： In this part of the test， you will hear a passage and read the same passage with blanks in it. Fill in each of the blanks with the words you have heard on the tape. Write your answer in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. Remember you will hear the passage ONLY ONCE.
As long as we are in a relationship， there is the potential for lasting happiness as well as for serious conflict. This applies at work， _________（1）， and at home. The simple fact is that relationships are not always _________（2） sailing. Conflict can lead to anger， hostility， and further conflicts. On the other hand， it can be used as _________（3） for solving problems.
For example， you can handle conflict by _________（4） that the problem exists， smoothing it over， or trying to overpower the other person. These， of course， will _________（5） win or lose situations. But when you resolve conflict through collaboration and compromise， you can achieve _________（6） situations. In today's lecture， I shall outline a few steps on _________（7） transform a conflict into a solution in which both parties win.
First _________（8）。 Explain the problem to the other party. You should _________（9） the conflict. It's hard to fix something before _________（10） on what is broken.
Second， understand all points of view. Set aside your own opinions for a moment and _________（11） to understand the other points of view. When people feel that they have been heard， they're often more _________（12）。
Third， brainstorm solutions. Dream up as many solutions as you can and _________（13） them one by one. This step will require _________（14）。 Talk about which solutions will work and _________（15） they will be to implement. Your solutions need to be acceptable by both parties， so you should be prepared to _________（16）。 Later， you'll need to review the _________（17） of the accepted solution. If it _________（18）， be open to making changes or _________（19）to bring about a new solution.
Finally， implement. When you have both _________（20）， decide who is going to do what by when. Then keep your agreements.
Part B： Listening Comprehension
Directions： In this part of the test there will be some short talks and conversations. After each one， you will be asked some questions. The talks， conversations and questions will be spoken ONLY ONCE. Now listen carefully and choose the right answer to each question you have heard and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
1. （A） Mr. Baker doesn't like to go to the meeting last night.
（B） Last night Mr. Baker decided to cancel this morning's meeting.
（C） Mr. Baker made up his mind not to go to this morning's meeting.
（D） Mr. Baker made a last-minute decision to hold the meeting this morning.
2. （A） Hard work often brings about discomfort in parts of the human body.
（B） If you are nervous， you may hurt yourself in performing this kind of task.
（C） Those staff members who work back to back are hard on each other.
（D） This exercise is to relax your muscles in the neck， the shoulders and the back.
3. （A） We have been working on this machine for two years.
（B） Free maintenance work is for a period of two years.
（C） You don't have to do repair work on this machine in two years.
（D） With monthly cleaning， the oil in this machine can run for two years.
4. （A） Only those high school graduates with excellent skills can be admitted into colleges.
（B） No matter how difficult it is， high school graduates should at least try twice to get themselves into colleges.
（C） Students should consider what they want to learn in the university.
（D） Once in the university， you will feel superior to those drop-out students.
5. （A） All the board members voted for the Chairman's proposal to open the branch office.
（B） The Chairman was not in favor of the opening of a branch office in the suburbs.
（C） The board members are expecting a new Chairman from the downtown office.
（D） The chairman's proposal to set up a branch office was turned down by the board members.
6. （A） Mary had made an appointment to see the personnel manager last Tuesday.
（B） Mary has been applying for a job and is going to see the personnel manager next week.
（C） Mary is shortsighted and cannot see that personnel manager in the next office.
（D） Mary didn't get that job since she was rude to the personnel manager on Tuesday.
7. （A） The supermarket will be finished in sixty days.
（B） It took us more than sixty days to finish building the supermarket.
（C） The supermarket should have been finished sixty days ago.
（D） The supermarket had been built sixty days earlier.
8. （A） Her attendance record was severely damaged.
（B） Her attendance record was never perfect.
（C） She had once assisted in keeping the attendance record.
（D） She had kept a near-perfect attendance record.
9. （A） He didn't know what would happen if he made the suggestion.
（B） He didn't feel nervous after he had put forward the suggestion.
（C） He realized that the committee members would not adopt his suggestion.
（D） He considered it important to talk to the committee members first.
10. （A） The Expo will be open the day after tomorrow.
（B） The Expo is rescheduled to open on Friday.
（C） The Expo's opening is delayed until tomorrow.
（D） The Expo is not likely to open on Friday.
2. Talks and Conversations
Directions： In this part of the test， you will hear several short talks and conversations. After each of these， you will hear a few questions. Listen carefully because you will hear the talk or conversation and questions ONLY ONCE. When you hear a question read the four answer choices and choose the best answer to that question. Then write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
11. （A） Mr. Powell telephoned.
（B） The woman dated Mr. Powell.
（C） Someone came to see him.
（D） There was a traffic jam.
12. （A） Because she hasn't recorded the phone message.
（B） Because she hasn't let Mr. Powell in.
（C） Because she hasn't invited him to lunch.
（D） Because she hasn't phoned him.
13. （A） Mr. Powell's name card.
（B） The restaurant's phone number.
（C） Some money to make a phone call.
（D） The name of a well-known department store.
14. （A） The woman was not careful about the man's name card.
（B） The man was expecting someone for something urgent.
（C） The man was not available when Mr. Powell came in.
（D） The woman accepted the man's apology for his mistake.
15. （A） In 1961.
（B） In 1963.
（C） In 1970.
（D） In 1971.
16. （A） Learning materials.
（B） Laboratory facilities.
（C） Summer courses.
（D） Party invitations.
17. （A） Some laboratory tests can be done at home.
（B） All the college courses are available.
（C） Registrations are all the year round.
（D） Invitations to parties are free to all the students.
18. （A） Part-time students may get cheaper snacks.
（B） Students are able to get TV study programmes.
（C） Students can attend lectures once a week.
（D） Students may participate in summer school courses.
19. （A） A lawyer.
（B） An artist.
（C） A student.
（D） A physician.
20. （A） She thinks that it is a well-paid profession.
（B） She considers herself to be fit for it.
（C） She is unable to find other jobs for some time.
（D） She wants to live independently of other people.
21. （A） She can speak several languages.
（B） She is more careful and kinder.
（C） She can serve women clients better.
（D） She is able to get more sympathy.
22. （A） Because it is well known for its educational excellence.
（B） Because it is inexpensive in terms of school tuition fees.
（C） Because it offers married students' apartments.
（D） Because it allows students to practice during the school terms.
23. （A） Studying socio-linguistics.
（B） Talking about the weather.
（C） Saying hullo to each other.
（D） Listening to weather forecasts.
24. （A） Linguists
25. （A） He is probably trying to begin a conversation.
（B） He is earnestly requesting an answer.
（C） He is carefully planning an out-door excursion.
（D） He is tentatively preparing a composition on social conventions.
26. （A） English people like to begin a conversation when the climate is favorable.
（B） Foreign visitors are sometimes annoyed by the variability of the weather in England.
（C） England is said to have the most effective transportation system in the world.
（D） The weather conditions in England are not as bad as some people have imagined.
27. （A） 20，000.
28. （A） The family owners.
（B） The pressure groups.
（C） The government and the councils.
（D） The local housing committees.
29. （A） Because the rents are too high.
（B） Because there are not enough hostels.
（C） Because the local councils are inefficient and indifferent.
（D） Because some state-run homes are less comfortable than prisons.
30. （A） A state-run apartment building for the homeless.
（B） An efficient local housing committee in the metropolis.
（C） A southern city that has solved the housing problem.
（D） A charity organization that offers help to the homeless.
Part C： Listening and Translation
I. Sentence Translation
Directions： In this part of the test， you will hear 5 sentence in English. You will hear the sentences ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each sentence， translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
II. Passage Translation
Directions： In this part of the test， you will hear 2 passages in English. You will hear the passages ONLY ONCE. After you have heard each passage， translate it into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET. You may take notes while you are listening.
SECTION 2： STUDY SKILLS
Direction： In this section， you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. You are to choose ONE best answer， （A）， （B）， （C） or （D）， to each question. Answer all the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage and write the letter of the answer you have chosen in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
In a bay near Almeria in Southern Spain will be built the world' first underwater residence for tourists. The hotel will be 40 feet down in the Mediterranean. As all the world opened to tour operators， there was still a frontier behind which lay three quarters of the globe's surface， the sea； in whose cool depths light fades； no winds blow； there are no stars. There even the most bored travelers could recapture their sense of romance， terror or beauty. For a submerged hotel is such a beautiful idea.
The hotel will cost ？170，000 and will be able to accommodate up to ten people a night. Up until now only scientists and professional divers have lived under the sea， but soon， for the first time， the public will be able to go down into the darkness. They will have to swim down in diving suits， but at 40 feet there would be no problem about decompression.
Design of the hotel was crucial. Most of the underwater structures used before had been in the shape of a diving bell or submarine. Professional divers could cope with such things but ordinary people would run the risk of violent claustrophobia. Then an Austrian architect had the idea of making three interconnecting circular structures， 18 feet in diameter， and looking much like flying saucers. They would be cast in concrete and launched from the shore. Towed into position they would then be sunk. A foundation of cast concrete would already be in place on the sea-bed. Pylons would attach the structures to this. Once in position the structures would be pumped dry. The pylons made to withstand an uplift pressure of 350 tons， would then take the strain.
Cables linking the underwater structures to the hotel on shore would connect it with electricity， fresh water， television， and an air pump， and also dispose of sewage. Entry would be from underneath， up a ladder； because of the pressure inside there would be no need of airlocks or doors.
The first structure would include a changing room and a shower area， where the divers would get out of their gear. There would also be a kitchen and a lavatory. The second structure would contain a dining room/lecture theatre， and sleeping accommodation for eight people. The third structure would contain two suites. A steward would come down with the ten customers， to cook and look after them. Television monitors would relay all that went on to the shore so that discussions on the sea bed could be transmitted to all the world.
1. From the passage we understand that tour operators and travelers will be interested in the submerged hotel as _________.
（A） it is a quiet place for research work
（B） it is an ideal sea-food restaurant
（C） it will offer new possibilities
（D） it will have unchanging weather
2. What design was finally considered most suitable for the new hotel？
（A） Three separated circles.
（B） Three linked discs.
（C） Three connected globes.
（D） Three interlocked cylinders.
3. The hotel would be able to float under water because it would be _______.
（A） made of light material
（B） 350 tons in weight
（C） filled with air
（D） attached to pylons
4. It is planned that sleeping quarters will be provided for the guests in the ________.
（A） second structure
（B） second and third structures
（C） first and third structures
（D） third structure
5. The purpose of television monitors under the sea would be to relay ________.
（A） instructions from the sea bed to the shore
（B） news from the shore to the sea bed
（C） information from the world to the sea bed
（D） information to the world from the sea bed
For most people， boasting about oneself does not come naturally. It is not easy or comfortable to tell someone all the wonderful things you have accomplished. But that is exactly what you need to do if you are seeking a new job， or trying to hold on to the one you have.
Of course， there is a fine line between self-confidence and arrogance， so to be successful in winning over the interviewer you must learn to maximize your accomplishments and attributes without antagonizing the interviewer.
The natural tendency for most job seekers is to behave modestly in a job interview. To do the best job of selling yourself in an interview， you have to be prepared in advance. As part of your job-hunting check list， write down on a piece of paper your major job-related accomplishments. Commit them to memory. You will probably be pleasantly surprised to see in writing all that you have done.
By developing this list， you will have accomplished two things： the first is you will impress the interviewer by being able to talk confidently and succinctly about your accomplishments. You will not have to sit uncomfortably while you think of your successes. They will be at the tip of your tongue. Secondly， rather than dwell on your own personality characteristics， such as how hardworking or creative you are， you can discuss hard facts， such as how you saved your employer money or an idea you developed that helped a customer make more money. When chronicling your accomplishments for the interviewer， take as much credit as you honestly can. If you were a key part behind a major group project， tell the interviewer. If you developed a specific idea without help from your supervisor， it is acceptable to say that. Remember， you are at that interview to sell yourself， not your former co-workers.
However， never criticize your former employer. Sharing your negative thoughts with the interviewer is an immediate turn-off and will only brand you as a complainer and gossip， whom no one likes or will hire.
Keep in mind that the most important part of a job interview is making the employer like you and presenting yourself as the person he or she wants you to be. Consciously or not most employers tend to hire people who reflect their own values and standards.
Once you get the job you want， boasting about your accomplishments does not stop. Although you may think all your successes and achievements are highly visible， remember that you are only one of many people in a company. Lack of recognition is cited by a majority of discharged managers as the most frequent complaint against the former employer.
To help make yourself more visible in the company， volunteer for additional assignments —both job-related and non-business-related. These could include community relations or charitable activities in which your company is involved. These types of activities may enable you to have more time and access to top executives of the company to whom you may endear yourself. You might even have the opportunity to tell them what you are doing for the company， which can never hurt.
6. This article is mostly about how to _________.
（A） interview for a job
（B） please your boss
（C） get along with co-workers
（D） get and keep a job
7. In paragraph 2， the word “maximize” mean to ________.
（A） talk about
（B） make the most of
（C） be modest about
（D） play down
8. The author states that the one thing you should never do during an interview is ______.
（A） list your successes in previous jobs
（B） promote your qualifications for the job
（C） tell your potential boss about the projects you've worked on
（D） make negative comments about your former employer
9. The author provides his views on winning and holding a new job by _______.
（A） offering suggestions
（B） presenting facts and statistics
（C） describing extreme situations
（D） telling stories
10. In the passage， the author recommends all of the following EXCEPT _______.
（A） making a point of telling your supervisor what you have done
（B） taking part in non-business-related activities
（C） going on boasting about your successes and achievements
（D） giving the employer an idea on how to run his other business
5 Steps to Living Longer
Watch Your Temper
Scientists have long believed that Type A's—those people driven by ambition， hard work and tight deadlines—were most prone to heart attacks. But it's not striving for goals that leads to disease； rather， it's being hostile， angry and cynical.
Suggests Mittleman： if stress mounts so high that you begin snapping at people， “Ask yourself， 'Is it worth having a heart attack over this？'”
Lighten Your Dark Moods
For years， evidence linking depression to an increased risk of heart attack has been growing. Johns Hopkins researchers interviewed 1551 people who were free of heart disease in the early 1980s and again 14 years later. Those who reported having experienced major depression were four times as likely to have a heart attack as those who had not been depressed.
Exercise is an often overlooked antidepressant. In a study at Duke University， 60 percent of clinically depressed people who took a brisk 30-miute walk or jog at least three times a week were no longer depressed after 16weeks.
Flatten That Belly
More than 50 years ago French scientist Jean Vague noted that people with a lot of upper-body fat （those who looked like apples rather than pears） often developed heart disease， diabetes and other ailments. But it wasn't until the introduction of CT and MRI scans that doctors discovered that a special kind of fat， visceral fat， located within the abdomen， was strongly linked to these diseases.
According to the National Institutes of Health， there's trouble brewing when your waist measures 35 inches or more if you're a woman， and 40 inches or more if you're a man. And that’s regardless of height.
Limit Your Bad Habits
Heavy drinking. Moderate drinkers may be the least likely to develop Metabolic Syndrome， while alcoholics are the most likely. In part that's because， pound for pound， they carry more abdominal fat. In one Swedish study， researchers found that male alcoholics carried 48 percent of their body fat within the abdomen， compared with 38 percent for teetotalers.
Cigarette smoking. Smoking is dangerous for reasons besides lung cancer or emphysema. Some 60 minutes after smoking a cigarette， one study revealed， smokers still showed elevated levels of cortical， which promotes abdominal fat storage.
Over-caffeinating. Moderate caffeine consumption doesn't seem to be harmful for most people. But recent studies suggest that when men who have both high blood pressure and a family history of hypertension drink a lot of caffeinated coffee while under job stress， they may experience a dangerous rise in blood pressure.
Rev Up Your Metabolism
A new understanding of how disease sets up shop in your body focuses on metabolism—the sum of physical and chemical reactions necessary to maintain life. This approach reveals that a healthy metabolic profile counts for more than cardiovascular fitness or weight alone.
As Glenn A. Gaesser， professor of exercise physiology at the University of Virginia， notes， “Metabolic fitness is one of the best safeguards against heart disease， stroke and diabetes.”
11. The phrase “snapping at” （Step 1： Watch Your Temper） is closest in meaning to ______.
（A） judging severely
（B） declaring publicly
（C） answering rudely
（D） understanding wrongly
12. According to the passage， which of the following people are liable to incur and suffer from heart attacks？
（A） Those whose waist measures 35 inches or less.
（B） Those who take a brisk 20-minute walk twice a week.
（C） Those who have experienced major depression.
（D） Those who have been striving for goals.
13. Stress may lead to all of the following EXCEPT _______.
（A） hostile disposition
（B） cynical behaviour
（D） great ambition
14. According to the passage， what kind of people are teetotalers （Step 4： Limit Your Bad Habits）？
（B） Heavy drinkers.
（C） Chain smokers.
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage？
（A） There is trouble brewing when your waist measures 35 inches or less.
（B） Metabolic fitness might prevent people from having heart disease.
（C） Moderate drinkers may be the most likely to develop Metabolic Syndrome.
（D） Moderate caffeine consumption seems to be harmful for most people.
World prehistory is written from data recovered from thousands of archaeological sites， places where traces of human activity are to be found. Sites are normally identified through the presence of manufactured tools.
Archaeological sites are most commonly classified by the activity that occurred there. Habitation sites are places where people lived and carried out a wide range of different activities. Most prehistoric sites come under this category， but habitation sites can vary from a small open campsite through rockshelters and caves， to large accumulations of shellfish remains （shell middens）。 Village habitation sites may consist of a small accumulation of occupation deposit and mud hut fragments， huge earthen mounds， or communes of stone buildings or entire buried cities. Each presents its own special excavation problems.
Burial sites provide a wealth of information on the prehistoric past. Grinning skeletons are very much part of popular archaeological legend， and human remains are common finds in the archaeological record. The earliest deliberate human burials are between fifty and seventy thousand years old. Individual burials are found in habitation sites， but often the inhabitants designated a special area for a cemetery. This cemetery could be a communal burial place where everyone was buried regardless of social status. Other burial sites， like the Shang royal cemeteries in China， were reserved for nobility alone. Parts of a cemetery were sometimes reserved for certain special individuals in society such as clan leaders or priests. The patterning of grave goods in a cemetery can provide information about intangible aspects of human society such as religious beliefs or social organization. So can the pattern of deposition of the burials， their orientation in their graves， even family grouping. Sometimes physical anthropologists can detect biological similarities between different skeletons that may reflect close family， or other， ties.
Quarry sites are places where people mined prized raw materials such as obsidian （a volcanic glass used for fine knives and mirrors） or copper. Excavations at such sites yield roughed out blanks of stone， or metal ingots， as well as finished products ready for trading elsewhere. Such objects were bartered widely in prehistoric times.
Art sites such as the cave of Altamira in northern Spain， or Lascaux in southwestern France， are commonplace in some areas of the world， noticeably southern Africa and parts of North America. Many are caves and rockshelters where prehistoric people painted or engraved game animals， scenes of daily life， or religious symbols. Some French art sites are at least fifteen thousand years old.
Each of these site types represents a particular form of human activity， one that is represented in the archaeological record by specific artifact patterns and surface indications found and recorded by the archaeologist.
16. An archaeological site is defined as a place where __________.
（A） some record of human activity is found
（B） humans bury beloved animals
（C） evidence of plant or animal life exists
（D） particular rock formations suggest the patterns of history
17. Generally speaking， archaeological sites are classified according to __________.
（A） the people who lived there
（B） the historical period during which they were occupied
（C） the type of activity for which they were used
（D） the degree of civilization of those who lived there
18. The author mentions all of the following features of graves which may provide archaeologists with information about a particular society EXCEPT _______.
（A） the location of the grave
（B） the goods buried with the person
（C） The degree of preservation of the body
（D） The orientation of the body in the grave
19. Quarry sites are places where _________.
（A） game was slaughtered
（B） prized animals were buried
（C） raw materials were dug from the earth
（D） building materials for burial sites were located
20. According to the passage， art sites often contain ___________.
（A） paintings showing scenes of daily life
（B） engravings of famous people
（C） paintings recording the location of burial sites
（D） tools and primitive devices used for engraving
I got used， too. To my employer's violent changes of front. There was one morning when Siegfried came down to breakfast， rubbing a hand wearily over red-rimmed eyes.
'Out at 2 a.m.，' he groaned， buttering his toast listlessly. 'And I don’t like to have to say this， James， but it's all your fault.'
'My fault？' I said， startled.
'Yes lad， your fault. The farmer has a sick cow for several days and at 2 o'clock this morning he finally decided to call the vet. When I pointed out it could have waited a few hours more he said Mr. Herriot told him never to hesitate to ring—he'd come out any hour of the day or night.’
He tapped the top of his egg as though the effort was almost too much for him. 'Well， it's all very well being conscientious and all that， but if a thing has waited several days it can wait till morning. You're spoiling these chaps， James， and I’m getting the backwash of it. I'm sick and tired of being dragged out of bed for trifles.'
'I'm truly sorry， Siegfried. I honestly had no wish to do that to you. Maybe it's just my inexperience. If I didn’t go out， I'd be worried the animal might die. If I left it till morning and it died， how would I feel？'
'That's all right，' snapped Siegfried. ’There's nothing like a dead animal to bring them to their senses. They'll call us out a bit earlier next time.'
I absorbed this bit of advice and tried to act on it. A week later， Siegfried said he wanted a word with me.
'James， I know you won't mind my saying this， but old Sumner was complaining to me today. He says he rang you the other night and you refused to come out to his cow. He's a good client， you know， and a very nice fellow， but he was quite shirty about it. We don’t want to lose a chap like that.'
'But it was just a chronic mastitis，' I said 'A bit of thickening in the milk， that’s all. He'd been dosing it himself for nearly a week with some quack remedy. The cow was eating all right， so I thought it would be quite safe to leave it till next day.'
Siegfried put a hand on my shoulder and an excessively patient look spread over his face. I steeled myself. I didn't mind his impatience， I was used to it and could stand it. But the patience was hard to take.
'James，' he said in a gentle voice， 'there is one fundamental rule in our job which transcends all others， and I’ll tell you what it is. YOU MUST ATTEND. That is it and it ought to be written on your soul in letters of fire.'
21. Siegfried was not at his best on one morning because _______.
（A） his breakfast was not to his liking
（B） he had been called out during the night
（C） he had been woken up early fro breakfast
（D） the farmer hadn't tried to cure the cow himself
22. According to the passage， who was the young yet？
（D） Mr. Herrioson.
23. James thought it was all right to leave Summer's cow till next day because ________.
（A） that was what Siegfried had advised
（B） Sumner had said there was no urgency
（C） He knew he could do nothing to save the animal
（D） Sumner never paid his bills on time
24. “You must attend” （last paragraph） in the context of the passage means “_______”。
（A） You must follow your conscience
（B） You must use your powers of discretion
（C） You must go out whenever you are called
（D） You must pay close attention at all times
25. The impression James gives of Siegfried is that of _________.
（A） a fairly easy-going generous employer
（B） someone rather pompous and unpredictable
（C） a conscientious but senile old man
（D） an insufferable， tyrannical boss
Most towns up to Elizabethan times were smaller than a modern village and each of them was built around its weekly market where local produce was brought for sale and the townsfolk sold their work to the people from the countryside and provided them with refreshment for the day. Trade was virtually confined to that one day even in a town of a thousand or so people. On market days craftsmen put up their stalls in the open air whilst on one or two other days during the week the townsman would pack up his loaves， or nails， or cloth， and set out early to do a day's trade in the market of an adjoining town where， however， he would be charged a heavy toll for the privilege and get a less favourable spot for his stand than the local craftsmen. Another chance for him to make a sale was to the congregation gathered for Sunday morning worship. Although no trade was allowed anywhere during the hours of the service （except at annual fair times）， after church there would be some trade at the church door with departing country folk.
The trade of markets was almost wholly concerned with exchanging the products of the nearby countryside and the goods made by local craftsmen with the result that the genuine retail dealer had very little place. In all goods sold in the market but particularly in food retail dealing was distrusted as a kind of profiteering. Even when there was enough trade being done to afford a livelihood to an enterprising man ready to buy wholesale and sell retail， town authorities were reluctant to allow it.
Yet there were plainly people who were tempted to 'forestall the market' by buying goods outside it， and to 'regrate’ them， that is to resell them， at a higher price. The constantly repeated rules against there practices and the endlessly recurring prosecutions mentioned in the records of all the larger towns prove that some well-informed and sharp-witted people did these things.
Every town made its own laws and if it was big enough to have craft guilds， these associations would regulate the business of their members and tried to enforce a strict monopoly of their own trades. Yet while the guild leaders， as craftsmen， followed fiercely protectionist policies， at the same time， as leading townsmen， they wanted to see a big， busy market yielding a handsome revenue in various dues and tolls. Conflicts of interest led to endless， minute regulations， changeable， often inconsistent， frequently absurd. There was a time in the fourteenth century， for example， when London fishmongers were not allowed to handle any fish that had not already been exposed for sale for three days by the men who caught it.
26. Craftsmen might prefer to trade in their own town because there they could _______.
（A） easily find good refreshment
（B） work in the open air
（C） start work very early
（D） have the well-placed stalls
27. A tradesman was not allowed to sell his goods only ________.
（A） on special market days
（B） at the annual fairs
（C） during Sunday morning services
（D） by the end of the services
28. In medieval markets there was little retail trade because ________.
（A） money was never used in sales
（B） producers sold directly to consumers
（C） there were no fixed positions for shops
（D） authorities were unwilling to make a profit
29. The expression “forestall the market” （paragraph 3） means “_________”。
（A） buy from a stall outside the market place
（B） acquire goods in quantity before the market
（C） have the best and the first stall in the market
（D） sell at a higher price than competitors
30. It can be concluded from the passage that the regulations enforced by craft guilds were often ________.
（A） unfair and unreasonable
（B） in the interest of the customers
（C） too complicated to comply with
（D） disapproved by the local authorities
SECTION 3： TRANSLATION TEST （1）
Direction： Translate the following passage into Chinese and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.
If the Immigration and Naturalization Service （INS） thinks it can largely curtail the nation's terrorism problems by focusing on college students， we all should worry.
Identification cards already are required here for most persons to enter their workplace， take an airplane flight or go into a public building， including my campus library. The idea of a national ID， however， was knocked out of earlier drafts of legislation by a coalition of civil rights and ethnic groups， who opposed a requirement that all non-citizens carry identifying documents. In some degree， they have a point.
We must fact the fact—and benefit from realizing—that no one can drive， or fly， or enter many private and public buildings without a picture ID， usually a driver's license or passport. That means that practically all Americans already must have what in effect is a national ID card.
We already routinely screen people. If we would just make good use of the national ID cards we have—and improve them—we could enhance our safety， avoid discrimination and not spend millions on another system.
SECTION 4： TRANSLATION TEST （2）
Direction： Translate the following passage into English and write your version in the corresponding space in your ANSWER BOOKLET.